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'SUBELEMENT 3BA -- Rules and Regulations (4 questions)
4
3A-3.2
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on
10.14-MHz?
200 watts PEP output
1000 watts DC input
1500 watts PEP output
2000 watts DC input
3A-3.3
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on
3725-kHz?
200 watts PEP output
1000 watts DC input
1500 watts PEP output
2000 watts DC input
3A-3.4
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on
7080-kHz?
200 watts PEP output
1000 watts DC input
1500 watts PEP output
2000 watts DC input
3A-3.5
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on
24.95-MHz?
200 watts PEP output
1000 watts DC input
1500 watts PEP output
2000 watts DC input
3A-3.7
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station
transmitting on 21.150-MHz?
200 watts PEP output
1000 watts DC input
1500 watts DC input
1500 watts PEP output
3A-4.1
How must a General control operator at a Novice station make the station
identification when transmitting on 7050-kHz?
The control operator should identify the station with his or her
call, followed by the word "controlling" and the Novice call
The control operator should identify the station with his or her
call, followed by the slant bar "/" and the Novice call
The control operator should identify the station with the Novice
call, followed by the slant bar "/" and his or her own call
A Novice station should not be operated on 7050 kHz, even with a
General class control operator
3A-4.3
How must a newly-upgraded General control operator with a Certificate
of Successful Completion of Examination identify the station when
transmitting on 14.325-MHz pending the receipt of a new operator license?
General-class privileges do not include 14.325 MHz
No special form of identification is needed
The operator shall give his/her call sign, followed by the words
"temporary" and the two-letter ID code shown on the Certificate of
Successful Completion of Examination
The operator shall give his/her call sign, followed by the date and
location of the VEC examination where he/she obtained the upgraded license
3A-6.1
Under what circumstances, if any, may third-party traffic be transmitted
to a foreign country by an amateur station?
Under no circumstances
Only if the country has a third-party traffic agreement with the
United States
Only if the control operator is an Amateur Extra class licensee
Only if the country has formal diplomatic relations with the United
States
3A-6.2
What types of messages may be transmitted by an amateur station to a
foreign country for a third-party?
Third-party traffic involving material compensation, either
tangible or intangible, direct or indirect, to a third party, a station
licensee, a control operator, or any other person
Third-party traffic consisting of business communications on behalf
of any party
Only third-party traffic which does not involve material
compensation of any kind, and is not business communication of any type
No messages may be transmitted to foreign countries for third
parties
3A-6.6
What additional limitations apply to third-party messages transmitted
to foreign countries?
Third-party messages may only be transmitted to amateurs in
countries with which the US has a third-party traffic agreement
Third-party messages may only be sent to amateurs in ITU Region 1
Third-party messages may only be sent to amateurs in ITU Region 3
Third-party messages must always be transmitted in English
3A-8.6
Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station transmitting
on 29.64-MHz repeat the 146.34-MHz signals of an amateur station with a
Technician control operator?
Under no circumstances
Only if the station on 29.64 MHz is operating under a Special
Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications
emergency
Only if the control operator of the repeater transmitter is
authorized to operate on 29.64 MHz
3A-9.1
What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 160
meter band?
1800 to 1900 kHz only
1900 to 2000 kHz only
1800 to 2000 kHz only
1825 to 2000 kHz only
3A-9.2
What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the
75/80 meter band?
3525 to 3750 and 3850 to 4000 kHz only
3525 to 3775 and 3875 to 4000 kHz only
3525 to 3750 and 3875 to 4000 kHz only
3525 to 3775 and 3850 to 4000 kHz only
3A-9.3
What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 40
meter band?
7025 to 7175 and 7200 to 7300 kHz only
7025 to 7175 and 7225 to 7300 kHz only
7025 to 7150 and 7200 to 7300 kHz only
7025 to 7150 and 7225 to 7300 kHz only
3A-9.4
What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 30
meter band?
10,100 to 10,150 kHz only
10,105 to 10,150 kHz only
10,125 to 10,150 kHz only
10,100 to 10,125 kHz only
3A-9.5
What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 20
meter band?
14,025 to 14,100 and 14,175 to 14,350 kHz only
14,025 to 14,150 and 14,225 to 14,350 kHz only
14,025 to 14,125 and 14,200 to 14,350 kHz only
14,025 to 14,175 and 14,250 to 14,350 kHz only
3A-9.6
What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 15
meter band?
21,025 to 21,200 and 21,275 to 21,450 kHz only
21,025 to 21,150 and 21,300 to 21,450 kHz only
21,025 to 21,200 and 21,300 to 21,450 kHz only
21,000 to 21,150 and 21,275 to 21,450 kHz only
3A-9.7
What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 12
meter band?
24,890 to 24,990 kHz only
24,890 to 24,975 kHz only
24,900 to 24,990 kHz only
24,790 to 24,990 kHz only
3A-9.8
What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 10
meter band?
28,000 to 29,700 kHz only
28,025 to 29,700 kHz only
28,100 to 29,700 kHz only
28,025 to 29,600 kHz only
3A-9.9
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 1820-kHz?
Extra only
Extra, Advanced only
Extra, Advanced, General only
Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
3A-9.10
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 3950-kHz?
Extra, Advanced only
Extra, Advanced, General only
Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice
3A-9.11
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 7230-kHz?
Extra only
Extra, Advanced only
Extra, Advanced, General only
Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
3A-9.12
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 10.125-MHz?
Extra, Advanced, General only
Extra, Advanced only
Extra only
Technician only
3A-9.13
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 14.325-MHz?
Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
Extra, Advanced, General only
Extra, Advanced only
Extra only
3A-9.14
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 21.425-MHz?
Extra, Advanced, General, Novice only
Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
Extra, Advanced, General only
Extra, Advanced only
3A-9.15
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 24.895-MHz?
Extra only
Extra, Advanced only
Extra, Advanced, General only
None
3A-9.16
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 29.616-MHz?
Novice, Technician, General, Advanced, Extra
Technician, General, Advanced, Extra only
General, Advanced, Extra only
Advanced, Extra only
3A-10.1
On what frequencies within the 160 meter band may emission A3E be
transmitted?
1800-2000 kHz only
1800-1900 kHz only
1900-2000 kHz only
1825-1950 kHz only
3A-10.2
On what frequencies within the 80 meter band may emission A1A be
transmitted?
3500-3750 kHz only
3700-3750 kHz only
3500-4000 kHz only
3890-4000 kHz only
3A-10.3
On what frequencies within the 40 meter band may emission A3F be
transmitted?
7225-7300 kHz only
7000-7300 kHz only
7100-7150 kHz only
7150-7300 kHz only
3A-10.4
On what frequencies within the 30 meter band may emission F1B be
transmitted?
10.140-10.150 MHz only
10.125-10.150 MHz only
10.100-10.150 MHz only
10.100-10.125 MHz only
3A-10.5
On what frequencies within the 20 meter band may emission A3C be
transmitted?
14,200-14,300 kHz only
14,150-14,350 kHz only
14,025-14,150 kHz only
14,150-14,300 kHz only
3A-10.6
On what frequencies within the 15 meter band may emission F3C be
transmitted?
21,200-21,300 kHz only
21,350-21,450 kHz only
21,200-21,450 kHz only
21,100-21,200 kHz only
3A-10.7
On what frequencies within the 12 meter band may emission J3E be
transmitted?
24,890-24,990 kHz only
24,890-24,930 kHz only
24,930-24,990 kHz only
J3E is not permitted in this band
3A-10.8
On what frequencies within the 10 meter band may emission A3E be
transmitted?
28,000-28,300 kHz only
29,000-29,700 kHz only
28,300-29,700 kHz only
28,000-29,000 kHz only
3A-13.1
How is the sending speed (signaling rate) for digital communications
determined?
By taking the reciprocal of the shortest (signaling) time interval (in
minutes) that occurs during a transmission, where each time interval is the
period between changes of transmitter state (including changes in emission
amplitude, frequency, phase, or combination of these, as authorized)
By taking the square root of the shortest (signaling) time interval (in
seconds) that occurs during a transmission, where each time interval is the
period between changes of transmitter state (including changes in emission
amplitude, frequency, phase, or combination of these, as authorized)
By taking the reciprocal of the shortest (signaling) time interval (in
seconds) that occurs during a transmission, where each time interval is the
period between changes of transmitter state (including changes in emission
amplitude, frequency, phase, or combination of these, as authorized)
By taking the square root of the shortest (signaling) time interval (in
minutes) that occurs during a transmission, where each time interval is the
period between changes of transmitter state (including changes in emission
amplitude, frequency, phase, or combination of these, as authorized)
3A-13.2
What is the maximum sending speed permitted for an emission F1B
transmission below 28-MHz?
56 kilobauds
19.6 kilobauds
1200 bauds
300 bauds
3A-14.3
Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station engage in some
form of broadcasting?
During severe storms, amateurs may broadcast weather information
for people with scanners
Under no circumstances
If power levels under one watt are used, amateur stations may
broadcast information bulletins, but not music
Amateur broadcasting is permissible above 10 GHz
3A-14.6
What protection, if any, is afforded an amateur station transmission
against retransmission by a broadcast station?
No protection whatsoever
The broadcaster must secure permission for retransmission from the
control operator of the amateur station
The broadcaster must petition the FCC for retransmission rights 30
days in advance
Retransmissions may only be made during a declared emergency
3A-15.1
Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a violin be
transmitted by an amateur station?
When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious emissions
When it is used to jam an illegal transmission
Only above 1215 MHz
Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur Service
3A-15.3
Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a piano be
transmitted by an amateur station?
When it is used to jam an illegal transmission
Only above 1215 MHz
Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur Service
When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious emissions
3A-15.4
Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a harmonica be
transmitted by an amateur station?
When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious emissions
Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur Service
When it is used to jam an illegal transmission
Only above 1215 MHz
3A-16.1
Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station transmit a
message in a secret code in order to obscure the meaning?
Only above 450 MHz
Only on Field Day
Never
Only during a declared communications emergency
3A-16.2
What types of abbreviations or signals are not considered codes or
ciphers?
Abbreviations and signals certified by the ARRL
Abbreviations and signals established by regulation or custom and
usage and whose intent is to facilitate communication and not to obscure
meaning
No abbreviations are permitted, as they tend to obscure the meaning
of the message to FCC monitoring stations
Only "10-codes" are permitted
3A-16.3
When, if ever, are codes and ciphers permitted in domestic amateur
radiocommunications?
Codes and ciphers are prohibited under all circumstances
Codes and ciphers are permitted during ARRL-sponsored contests
Codes and ciphers are permitted during nationally declared
emergencies
Codes and ciphers are permitted above 2.3 GHz
3A-16.4
When, if ever, are codes and ciphers permitted in international amateur
radiocommunications?
Codes and ciphers are prohibited under all circumstances
Codes and ciphers are permitted during ITU-sponsored DX contests
Codes and ciphers are permitted during internationally declared
emergencies
Codes and ciphers are permitted only on frequencies above 2.3 GHz
'SUBELEMENT 3BB -- Operating Procedures (3 questions)
3
3B-1.4
What is meant by the term flattopping in an emission J3E transmission?
Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
The transmitter's automatic level control is properly adjusted
Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
3B-1.5
How should the microphone gain control be adjusted on an emission J3E
transmitter?
For full deflection of the ALC meter on modulation peaks
For slight movement of the ALC meter on modulation peaks
For 100% frequency deviation on modulation peaks
For a dip in plate current
3B-2.1
In which segment of the 20 meter band do most emission F1B transmissions
take place?
Between 14.000 and 14.050 MHz
Between 14.075 and 14.100 MHz
Between 14.150 and 14.225 MHz
Between 14.275 and 14.350 MHz
3B-2.2
In which segment of the 80 meter band do most emission F1B transmissions
take place?
3.610 to 3.630 MHz
3500 to 3525 kHz
3700 to 3750 kHz
3.775 to 3.825 MHz
3B-2.3
What is meant by the term Baudot?
Baudot is a 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits
Baudot is a 7-bit code in which each character has four mark and
three space bits
Baudot is a 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits
Baudot is a 6-bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits
3B-2.4
What is meant by the term ASCII?
ASCII is a 7-bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits
ASCII is a 7-bit code in which each character has four mark and
three space bits
ASCII is a 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits
ASCII is a 5-bit code in which each character has three mark and
two space bits
3B-2.6
What is the most common frequency shift for emission F1B transmissions
in the amateur HF bands?
85 Hz
170 Hz
425 Hz
850 Hz
3B-2.10
What are the two subset modes of AMTOR?
A mark of 2125 Hz and a space of 2295 Hz
Baudot and ASCII
ARQ and FEC
USB and LSB
3B-2.11
What is the meaning of the term ARQ?
Automatic Repeater Queue
Automatic Receiver Quieting
Automatically Resend Quickly
Automatic Repeat Request
3B-2.12
What is the meaning of the term FEC?
Frame Error Check
Forward Error Correction
Frequency Envelope Control
Frequency Encoded Connection
3B-3.8
What is a band plan?
An outline adopted by Amateur Radio operators for operating within
a specific portion of radio spectrum
An arrangement for deviating from FCC Rules and Regulations
A schedule for operating devised by the Federal Communications
Commission
A plan devised for a club on how best to use a band during a
contest
3B-3.12
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for a 10 meter
station in repeater operation?
100 kHz
600 kHz
1.6 MHz
170 Hz
3B-4.1
What is meant by the term VOX transmitter control?
Circuitry that causes the transmitter to transmit automatically
when the operator speaks into the microphone
Circuitry that shifts the frequency of the transmitter when the
operator switches from radiotelegraphy to radiotelephony
Circuitry that activates the receiver incremental tuning in a
transceiver
Circuitry that isolates the microphone from the ambient noise level
3B-4.2
What is the common name for the circuit that causes a transmitter to
automatically transmit when a person speaks into the microphone?
VXO
VOX
VCO
VFO
3B-5.1
What is meant by the term full break-in telegraphy?
A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the breaking
station sends the Morse Code symbol BK
A system of radiotelegraph communication in which only automatic
keyers can be used
A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the operator must
activate the send-receive switch after completing a transmission
A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the receiver is
sensitive to incoming signals between transmitted key pulses
3B-5.2
What Q signal is used to indicate full break-in telegraphy capability?
QSB
QSF
QSK
QSV
3B-6.1
When selecting an emission A1A transmitting frequency, what is the
minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress that should be allowed
in order to minimize interference?
5 to 50 Hz
150 to 500 Hz
Approximately 3 kHz
Approximately 6 kHz
3B-6.2
When selecting an emission J3E transmitting frequency, what is the
minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress that should be allowed
in order to minimize interference?
150 to 500 Hz between suppressed carriers
Approximately 3 kHz between suppressed carriers
Approximately 6 kHz between suppressed carriers
Approximately 10 kHz between suppressed carriers
3B-6.3
When selecting an emission F1B RTTY transmitting frequency, what is the
minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress that should be allowed
in order to minimize interference?
Approximately 45 Hz center to center
Approximately 250 to 500 Hz center to center
Approximately 3 kHz center to center
Approximately 6 kHz center to center
3B-7.1
What is an azimuthal map?
A map projection that is always centered on the North Pole
A map projection, centered on a particular location, that
determines the shortest path between two points on the surface of the earth
A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses
the equator
A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur
satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
3B-7.2
How can an azimuthal map be helpful in conducting international HF
radiocommunications?
It is used to determine the proper beam heading for the shortest
path to a DX station
It is used to determine the most efficient transmitting antenna
height to conduct the desired communication
It is used to determine the angle at which an amateur satellite
crosses the equator
It is used to determine the maximum usable frequency (MUF)
3B-7.3
What is the most useful type of map when orienting a directional antenna
toward a station 5,000 miles distant?
Azimuthal
Mercator
Polar projection
Topographical
3B-7.4
A directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction to another
station is generally oriented how many degrees from the short-path heading?
45 degrees
90 degrees
180 degrees
270 degrees
3B-7.5
What is the short-path heading to Antarctica?
Approximately 0 degrees
Approximately 90 degrees
Approximately 180 degrees
Approximately 270 degrees
3B-8.1
When permitted, transmissions to amateur stations in another country
must be limited to only what type of messages?
Messages of any type are permitted
Messages that compete with public telecommunications services
Messages of a technical nature or remarks of a personal character
of relative unimportance
Such transmissions are never permitted
3B-8.2
In which International Telecommunication Union Region is the continental
United States?
Region 1
Region 2
Region 3
Region 4
3B-8.3
In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Alaska?
Region 1
Region 2
Region 3
Region 4
3B-8.4
In which International Telecommunication Union Region is American Samoa?
Region 1
Region 2
Region 3
Region 4
3B-8.5
For uniformity in international radiocommunication, what time
measurement standard should amateur radio operators worldwide use?
Eastern Standard Time
Uniform Calibrated Time
Coordinated Universal Time
Universal Time Control
3B-8.6
In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Hawaii?
Region 1
Region 2
Region 3
Region 4
3B-8.7
In which International Telecommunication Union Region are the Northern
Mariana Islands?
Region 1
Region 2
Region 3
Region 4
3B-8.8
In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Guam?
Region 1
Region 2
Region 3
Region 4
3B-8.9
In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Wake Island?
Region 1
Region 2
Region 3
Region 4
3B-10.1
What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Field Operations Bureau?
Amateur Volunteers formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for
rules violations
Amateur Volunteers who conduct Amateur Radio licensing examinations
Amateur Volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur
VHF repeaters
Amateur Volunteers who determine height above average terrain
measurements for repeater installations
3B-10.2
What are the objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Field
Operations Bureau?
To enforce amateur self-regulation and compliance with the rules
To foster amateur self-regulation and compliance with the rules
To promote efficient and orderly spectrum usage in the repeater
subbands
To provide emergency and public safety communications
'SUBELEMENT 3BC -- Radio-Wave Propagation (3 questions)
3
3C-1.6
What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface that can normally
be covered in one hop using the F2 layer?
Approximately 180 miles
Approximately 1200 miles
Approximately 2500 miles
No distance; this layer does not support radio communication
3C-1.7
What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface that can be
covered in one hop using the E layer?
Approximately 180 miles
Approximately 1200 miles
Approximately 2500 miles
No distance; this layer does not support radio communication
3C-1.9
What is the average height of maximum ionization of the E layer?
45 miles
70 miles
200 miles
1200 miles
3C-1.10
During what part of the day, and in what season of the year can the F2
layer be expected to reach its maximum height?
At noon during the summer
At midnight during the summer
At dusk in the spring and fall
At noon during the winter
3C-1.13
What is the critical angle, as used in radio wave propagation?
The lowest take off angle that will return a radio wave to earth
under specific ionospheric conditions
The compass direction of the desired DX station from your location
The 180-degree-inverted compass direction of the desired DX station
from your location
The highest take off angle that will return a radio wave to earth
during specific ionospheric conditions
3C-2.3
What is the main reason that the 160, 80, and 40 meter amateur bands
tend to be useful for only short-distance communications during daylight
hours?
Because of a lack of activity
Because of auroral propagation
Because of D-layer absorption
Because of magnetic flux
3C-2.4
What is the principal reason the 160 meter through 40 meter bands are
useful for only short-distance radiocommunications during daylight hours?
F-layer bending
Gamma radiation
D-layer absorption
Tropospheric ducting
3C-3.3
If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Minnesota to Africa is
22-MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a successful QSO?
10 meters
15 meters
20 meters
40 meters
3C-3.4
If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Ohio to West Germany
is 17-MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a successful QSO?
80 meters
40 meters
20 meters
2 meters
3C-5.1
Over what periods of time do sudden ionospheric disturbances normally
last?
The entire day
A few minutes to a few hours
A few hours to a few days
Approximately one week
3C-5.2
What can be done at an amateur station to continue radiocommunications
during a sudden ionospheric disturbance?
Try a higher frequency
Try the other sideband
Try a different antenna polarization
Try a different frequency shift
3C-5.3
What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daylight
ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?
Disrupts higher-latitude paths more than lower-latitude paths
Disrupts transmissions on lower frequencies more than those on
higher frequencies
Disrupts communications via satellite more than direct
communications
None. Only dark (as in nighttime) areas of the globe are affected
3C-5.4
How long does it take a solar disturbance that increases the sun's
ultraviolet radiation to cause ionospheric disturbances on earth?
Instantaneously
1.5 seconds
8 minutes
20 to 40 hours
3C-5.5
Sudden ionospheric disturbances cause increased radio wave absorption
in which layer of the ionosphere?
D layer
E layer
F1 layer
F2 layer
3C-6.2
What is a characteristic of backscatter signals?
High intelligibility
A wavering sound
Reversed modulation
Reversed sidebands
3C-6.4
What makes backscatter signals often sound distorted?
Auroral activity and changes in the earth's magnetic field
The propagation through ground waves that absorb much of the
signal's clarity
The earth's E-layer at the point of radio wave refraction
The small part of the signal's energy scattered back to the
transmitter skip zone through several radio-wave paths
3C-6.5
What is the radio wave propagation phenomenon that allows a signal to
be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near
for normal sky wave propagation?
Ground wave
Scatter
Sporadic-E skip
Short path skip
3C-6.6
When does ionospheric scatter propagation on the HF bands most often
occur?
When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum
At night
When the F1 and F2 layers are combined
At frequencies above the maximum usable frequency
3C-7.1
What is solar flux?
The density of the sun's magnetic field
The radio energy emitted by the sun
The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the earth
A measure of the tilt of the earth's ionosphere on the side toward
the sun
3C-7.2
What is the solar-flux index?
A measure of past measurements of solar activity
A measurement of solar activity that compares daily readings with
results from the last six months
Another name for the American sunspot number
A measure of solar activity that is taken daily
3C-7.3
What is a timely indicator of solar activity?
The 2800-MHz solar flux index
The mean Canadian sunspot number
A clock set to Coordinated Universal Time
Van Allen radiation measurements taken at Boulder, Colorado
3C-7.4
What type of propagation conditions on the 15 meter band are indicated
by a solar-flux index value of 60 to 70?
Unpredictable ionospheric propagation
No ionospheric propagation is possible
Excellent ionospheric propagation
Poor ionospheric propagation
3C-7.5
A solar flux index in the range of 90 to 110 indicates what type of
propagation conditions on the 15 meter band?
Poor ionospheric propagation
No ionospheric propagation is possible
Unpredictable ionospheric propagation
Good ionospheric propagation
3C-7.6
A solar flux index of greater than 120 would indicate what type of
propagation conditions on the 10 meter band?
Good ionospheric propagation
Poor ionospheric propagation
No ionospheric propagation is possible
Unpredictable ionospheric propagation
3C-7.7
For widespread long distance openings on the 6 meter band, what
solar-flux index values would be required?
Less than 50
Approximately 75
Greater than 100
Greater than 250
3C-7.8
If the MUF is high and HF radiocommunications are generally good for
several days, a similar condition can usually be expected how many days
later?
7 days
14 days
28 days
90 days
3C-10.1
What is a geomagnetic disturbance?
A sudden drop in the solar-flux index
A shifting of the earth's magnetic pole
Ripples in the ionosphere
A dramatic change in the earth's magnetic field over a short period
of time
3C-10.2
Which latitude paths are more susceptible to geomagnetic disturbances?
Those greater than 45 degrees latitude
Those less than 45 degrees latitude
Equatorial paths
All paths are affected equally
3C-10.3
What can be the effect of a major geomagnetic storm on
radiocommunications?
Improved high-latitude HF communications
Degraded high-latitude HF communications
Improved ground-wave propagation
Improved chances of ducting at UHF
3C-10.4
How long does it take a solar disturbance that increases the sun's
radiation of charged particles to affect radio wave propagation on earth?
The effect is instantaneous
1.5 seconds
8 minutes
20 to 40 hours
'SUBELEMENT 3BD -- Amateur Radio Practice (5 questions)
5
3D-1.5
Which wires in a four conductor line cord should be attached to fuses
in a 234-VAC primary (single phase) power supply?
Only the "hot" (black and red) wires
Only the "neutral" (white) wire
Only the ground (bare) wire
All wires
3D-1.6
What size wire is normally used on a 15-ampere, 117-VAC household
lighting circuit?
AWG number 14
AWG number 16
AWG number 18
AWG number 22
3D-1.7
What size wire is normally used on a 20-ampere, 117-VAC household
appliance circuit?
AWG number 20
AWG number 16
AWG number 14
AWG number 12
3D-1.8
What could be a cause of the room lights dimming when the transmitter
is keyed?
RF in the AC pole transformer
High resistance in the key contacts
A drop in AC line voltage
The line cord is wired incorrectly
3D-1.9
What size fuse should be used on a #12 wire household appliance circuit?
Maximum of 100 amperes
Maximum of 60 amperes
Maximum of 30 amperes
Maximum of 20 amperes
3D-2.4
What safety feature is provided by a bleeder resistor in a power supply?
It improves voltage regulation
It discharges the filter capacitors
It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
It eliminates ground-loop current
3D-3.1
What kind of input signal is used to test the amplitude linearity of an
emission J3E transmitter while viewing the output on an oscilloscope?
Normal speech
An audio-frequency sine wave
Two audio-frequency sine waves
An audio-frequency square wave
3D-3.2
To test the amplitude linearity of an emission J3E transmitter with an
oscilloscope, what should the audio input to the transmitter be?
Normal speech
An audio-frequency sine wave
Two audio-frequency sine waves
An audio-frequency square wave
3D-3.3
How are two-tones used to test the amplitude linearity of an emission
J3E transmitter?
Two harmonically related audio tones are fed into the microphone input
of a J3E transmitter, and the output is observed on an oscilloscope
Two harmonically related audio tones are fed into the microphone input
of the transmitter, and the output is observed on a distortion analyzer
Two non-harmonically related audio tones are fed into the microphone
input of the transmitter, and the output is observed on an oscilloscope
Two non-harmonically related audio tones are fed into the microphone
input of the transmitter, and the output is observed on a wattmeter
3D-3.4
What audio frequencies are used in a two-tone test of the linearity of
an emission J3E transmitter?
20 Hz and 20,000 Hz tones must be used
1200 Hz and 2400 Hz tones must be used
Any two audio tones may be used, if they are harmonically related
Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the
transmitter audio passband, and should not be harmonically related
3D-3.5
What can be determined by making a two-tone test using an oscilloscope?
The percent of frequency modulation
The percent of carrier phase shift
The frequency deviation
The amplifier linearity
3D-4.1
How can the grid-current meter in a power amplifier be used as a
neutralizing indicator?
Tune for minimum change in grid current as the output circuit is
changed
Tune for maximum change in grid current as the output circuit is
changed
Tune for minimum grid current
Tune for maximum grid current
3D-4.2
Why is neutralization in some vacuum tube amplifiers necessary?
To reduce the limits of loaded Q in practical tuned circuits
To reduce grid to cathode leakage
To cancel acid build-up caused by thorium oxide gas
To cancel oscillation caused by the effects of interelectrode
capacitance
3D-4.3
How is neutralization of an RF amplifier accomplished?
By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the input on
alternate half cycles
By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the input shifted
360 degrees out of phase
By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the input shifted
180 degrees out of phase
By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the input with a
proper DC bias
3D-4.4
What purpose does a neutralizing circuit serve in an RF amplifier?
It controls differential gain
It cancels the effects of positive feedback
It eliminates circulating currents
It reduces incidental grid modulation
3D-4.5
What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a
transmitter?
To limit the modulation index
To eliminate parasitic oscillations
To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
To keep the carrier on frequency
3D-5.1
How can the output PEP of a transmitter be determined with an
oscilloscope?
Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an
oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = [(Vp)(Vp)]/(RL)
Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an
oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = [(0.707 PEV)(0.707 PEV)]/RL
Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an
oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = (Vp)(Vp)(RL)
Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an
oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = [(1.414 PEV)(1.414 PEV)]/RL
3D-5.5
What is the output PEP from a transmitter when an oscilloscope shows
200-volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistor connected to the transmitter
output terminals?
100 watts
200 watts
400 watts
1000 watts
3D-5.6
What is the output PEP from a transmitter when an oscilloscope shows
500-volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistor connected to the transmitter
output terminals?
500 watts
625 watts
1250 watts
2500 watts
3D-5.7
What is the output PEP from an N0N transmitter when an average-reading
wattmeter connected to the transmitter output terminals indicates 1060 watts?
530 watts
1060 watts
1500 watts
2120 watts
3D-6.1
What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel
amplifiers?
The ohmmeter
The signal generator
The ammeter
The oscilloscope
3D-6.2
What types of signals can an oscilloscope measure?
Any time-dependent signal within the bandwidth capability of the
instrument
Blinker-light signals from ocean-going vessels
International nautical flag signals
Signals created by aeronautical flares
3D-6.3
What is an oscilloscope?
An instrument that displays the radiation resistance of an antenna
An instrument that displays the SWR on a feed line
An instrument that displays the resistance in a circuit
An instrument that displays signal waveforms
3D-6.4
What can cause phosphor damage to an oscilloscope cathode ray tube?
Directly connecting deflection electrodes to the cathode ray tube
Too high an intensity setting
Overdriving the vertical amplifier
Improperly adjusted focus
3D-9.1
What is a signal tracer?
A direction-finding antenna
An aid for following schematic diagrams
A device for detecting signals in a circuit
A device for drawing signal waveforms
3D-9.2
How is a signal tracer used?
To detect the presence of a signal in the various stages of a
receiver
To locate a source of interference
To trace the path of a radio signal through the ionosphere
To draw a waveform on paper
3D-9.3
What is a signal tracer normally used for?
To identify the source of radio transmissions
To make exact replicas of signals
To give a visual indication of standing waves on open-wire feed
lines
To identify an inoperative stage in a radio receiver
3D-10.1
What is the most effective way to reduce or eliminate audio frequency
interference to home entertainment systems?
Install bypass inductors
Install bypass capacitors
Install metal oxide varistors
Install bypass resistors
3D-10.2
What should be done when a properly-operating amateur station is the
source of interference to a nearby telephone?
Make internal adjustments to the telephone equipment
Contact a phone service representative about installing RFI filters
Nothing can be done to cure the interference
Ground and shield the local telephone distribution amplifier
3D-10.3
What sound is heard from a public address system when audio
rectification occurs in response to a nearby emission J3E transmission?
A steady hum that persists while the transmitter's carrier is on
the air
On-and-off humming or clicking
Distorted speech from the transmitter's signals
Clearly audible speech from the transmitter's signals
3D-10.4
How can the possibility of audio rectification occurring be minimized?
By using a solid state transmitter
By using CW emission only
By ensuring all station equipment is properly grounded
By using AM emission only
3D-10.5
What sound is heard from a public address system when audio
rectification occurs in response to a nearby emission A3E transmission?
Audible, possibly distorted speech from the transmitter signals
On-and-off humming or clicking
Muffled, distorted speech from the transmitter's signals
Extremely loud, severely distorted speech from the transmitter's
signals
3D-12.2
What is the reason for using a speech processor with an emission J3E
transmitter?
A properly adjusted speech processor reduces average transmitter
power requirements
A properly adjusted speech processor reduces unwanted noise pickup
from the microphone
A properly adjusted speech processor improves voice frequency
fidelity
A properly adjusted speech processor improves signal
intelligibility at the receiver
3D-12.3
When a transmitter is 100% modulated, will a speech processor increase
the output PEP?
Yes
No
It will decrease the transmitter's peak power output
It will decrease the transmitter's average power output
3D-12.4
Under which band conditions should a speech processor not be used?
When there is high atmospheric noise on the band
When the band is crowded
When the frequency in use is clear
When the sunspot count is relatively high
3D-12.5
What effect can result from using a speech processor with an emission
J3E transmitter?
A properly adjusted speech processor reduces average transmitter
power requirements
A properly adjusted speech processor reduces unwanted noise pickup
from the microphone
A properly adjusted speech processor improves voice frequency
fidelity
A properly adjusted speech processor improves signal
intelligibility at the receiver
3D-13.1
At what point in a coaxial line should an electronic T-R switch be
installed?
Between the transmitter and low-pass filter
Between the low-pass filter and antenna
At the antenna feed point
Right after the low-pass filter
3D-13.2
Why is an electronic T-R switch preferable to a mechanical one?
Greater receiver sensitivity
Circuit simplicity
Higher operating speed
Cleaner output signals
3D-13.3
What station accessory facilitates QSK operation?
Oscilloscope
Audio CW filter
Antenna relay
Electronic TR switch
3D-14.6
What is an antenna noise bridge?
An instrument for measuring the noise figure of an antenna or other
electrical circuit
An instrument for measuring the impedance of an antenna or other
electrical circuit
An instrument for measuring solar flux
An instrument for tuning out noise in a receiver
3D-14.7
How is an antenna noise bridge used?
It is connected at the antenna feed point, and the noise is read
directly
It is connected between a transmitter and an antenna and tuned for
minimum SWR
It is connected between a receiver and an unknown impedance and
tuned for minimum noise
It is connected between an antenna and a Transmatch and adjusted
for minimum SWR
3D-15.1
How does the emitted waveform from a properly-adjusted emission J3E
transmitter appear on a monitoring oscilloscope?
A vertical line
A waveform that mirrors the input waveform
A square wave
Two loops at right angles
3D-15.2
What is the best instrument for checking transmitted signal quality from
an emissions A1A/J3E transmitter?
A monitor oscilloscope
A field strength meter
A sidetone monitor
A diode probe and an audio amplifier
3D-15.3
What is a monitoring oscilloscope?
A device used by the FCC to detect out-of-band signals
A device used to observe the waveform of a transmitted signal
A device used to display SSTV signals
A device used to display signals in a receiver IF stage
3D-15.4
How is a monitoring oscilloscope connected in a station in order to
check the quality of the transmitted signal?
Connect the receiver IF output to the vertical-deflection plates
of the oscilloscope
Connect the transmitter audio input to the oscilloscope vertical
input
Connect a receiving antenna directly to the oscilloscope vertical
input
Connect the transmitter output to the vertical-deflection plates
of the oscilloscope
3D-17.2
What is the most appropriate instrument to use when determining antenna
horizontal radiation patterns?
A field strength meter
A grid-dip meter
A wave meter
A vacuum-tube voltmeter
3D-17.3
What is a field-strength meter?
A device for determining the standing-wave ratio on a transmission
line
A device for checking modulation on the output of a transmitter
A device for monitoring relative RF output
A device for increasing the average transmitter output
3D-17.4
What is a simple instrument that can be useful for monitoring relative
RF output during antenna and transmitter adjustments?
A field-strength meter
An antenna noise bridge
A multimeter
A Transmatch
3D-17.5
When the power output from a transmitter is increased by four times, how
should the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver change?
Decrease by approximately one S-unit
Increase by approximately one S-unit
Increase by approximately four S-units
Decrease by approximately four S-units
3D-17.6
By how many times must the power output from a transmitter be increased
to raise the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver from S-8 to S-9?
Approximately 2 times
Approximately 3 times
Approximately 4 times
Approximately 5 times
'SUBELEMENT 3BE -- Electrical Principles (2 questions)
2
3E-1.1
What is meant by the term impedance?
The electric charge stored by a capacitor
The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit containing only
capacitance
The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit
The force of repulsion presented to an electric field by another
field with the same charge
3E-1.2
What is the opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit containing both
resistance and reactance called?
Ohm
Joule
Impedance
Watt
3E-3.1
What is meant by the term reactance?
Opposition to DC caused by resistors
Opposition to AC caused by inductors and capacitors
A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is
de-energized
3E-3.2
What is the opposition to the flow of AC caused by an inductor called?
Resistance
Reluctance
Admittance
Reactance
3E-3.3
What is the opposition to the flow of AC caused by a capacitor called?
Resistance
Reluctance
Admittance
Reactance
3E-3.4
How does a coil react to AC?
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance
decreases
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance also
increases
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance
decreases
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance also
increases
3E-3.5
How does a capacitor react to AC?
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance
decreases
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance
increases
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance also
increases
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance
decreases
3E-6.1
When will a power source deliver maximum output?
When the impedance of the load is equal to the impedance of the
source
When the SWR has reached a maximum value
When the power supply fuse rating equals the primary winding
current
When air wound transformers are used instead of iron core
transformers
3E-6.2
What is meant by impedance matching?
To make the load impedance much greater than the source impedance
To make the load impedance much less than the source impedance
To use a balun at the antenna feed point
To make the load impedance equal the source impedance
3E-6.3
What occurs when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the
internal impedance of the power source?
The source delivers minimum power to the load
There will be a high SWR condition
No current can flow through the circuit
The source delivers maximum power to the load
3E-6.4
Why is impedance matching important in radio work?
So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
So the load will draw minimum power from the source
To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the
circuit
To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are
equal
3E-7.2
What is the unit measurement of reactance?
Mho
Ohm
Ampere
Siemen
3E-7.4
What is the unit measurement of impedance?
Ohm
Volt
Ampere
Watt
3E-10.1
What is a bel?
The basic unit used to describe a change in power levels
The basic unit used to describe a change in inductances
The basic unit used to describe a change in capacitances
The basic unit used to describe a change in resistances
3E-10.2
What is a decibel?
A unit used to describe a change in power levels, equal to 0.1 bel
A unit used to describe a change in power levels, equal to 0.01 bel
A unit used to describe a change in power levels, equal to 10 bels
A unit used to describe a change in power levels, equal to 100 bels
3E-10.3
Under ideal conditions, a barely detectable change in loudness is
approximately how many dB?
12 dB
6 dB
3 dB
1 dB
3E-10.4
A two-times increase in power results in a change of how many dB?
Multiplying the original power by 2 gives a new power that is 1 dB
higher
Multiplying the original power by 2 gives a new power that is 3 dB
higher
Multiplying the original power by 2 gives a new power that is 6 dB
higher
Multiplying the original power by 2 gives a new power that is 12
dB higher
3E-10.5
An increase of 6 dB results from raising the power by how many times?
Multiply the original power by 1.5 to get the new power
Multiply the original power by 2 to get the new power
Multiply the original power by 3 to get the new power
Multiply the original power by 4 to get the new power
3E-10.6
A decrease of 3 dB results from lowering the power by how many times?
Divide the original power by 1.5 to get the new power
Divide the original power by 2 to get the new power
Divide the original power by 3 to get the new power
Divide the original power by 4 to get the new power
3E-10.7
A signal strength report is "10 dB over S9". If the transmitter power
is reduced from 1500 watts to 150 watts, what should be the new signal
strength report?
S5
S7
S9
S9 plus 5 dB
3E-10.8
A signal strength report is "20 dB over S9". If the transmitter power
is reduced from 1500 watts to 150 watts, what should be the new signal
strength report?
S5
S7
S9
S9 plus 10 dB
3E-10.9
A signal strength report is "20 dB over S9". If the transmitter power
is reduced from 1500 watts to 15 watts, what should be the new signal
strength report?
S5
S7
S9
S9 plus 10 dB
3E-12.1
If a 1.0-ampere current source is connected to two parallel-connected
10 ohm resistors, how much current passes through each resistor?
10 amperes
2 amperes
1 ampere
0.5 ampere
3E-12.3
In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several branch
resistors, what relationship does the total current have to the current in
the branch circuits?
The total current equals the average of the branch current through
each resistor
The total current equals the sum of the branch current through each
resistor
The total current decreases as more parallel resistors are added
to the circuit
The total current is calculated by adding the voltage drops across
each resistor and multiplying the sum by the total number of all circuit
resistors
3E-13.1
How many watts of electrical power are being used when a 400-VDC power
source supplies an 800 ohm load?
0.5 watt
200 watts
400 watts
320,000 watts
3E-13.2
How many watts of electrical power are being consumed by a 12-VDC pilot
light which draws 0.2-amperes?
60 watts
24 watts
6 watts
2.4 watts
3E-13.3
How many watts are being dissipated when 7.0-milliamperes flows through
1.25 kilohms?
Approximately 61 milliwatts
Approximately 39 milliwatts
Approximately 11 milliwatts
Approximately 9 milliwatts
3E-14.1
How is the total resistance calculated for several resistors in series?
The total resistance must be divided by the number of resistors to
ensure accurate measurement of resistance
The total resistance is always the lowest-rated resistance
The total resistance is found by adding the individual resistances
together
The tolerance of each resistor must be raised proportionally to the
number of resistors
3E-14.2
What is the total resistance of two equal, parallel-connected resistors?
Twice the resistance of either resistance
The sum of the two resistances
The total resistance cannot be determined without knowing the exact
resistances
Half the resistance of either resistor
3E-14.3
What is the total inductance of two equal, parallel-connected inductors?
Half the inductance of either inductor, assuming no mutual coupling
Twice the inductance of either inductor, assuming no mutual
coupling
The sum of the two inductances, assuming no mutual coupling
The total inductance cannot be determined without knowing the exact
inductances
3E-14.4
What is the total capacitance of two equal, parallel-connected
capacitors?
Half the capacitance of either capacitor
Twice the capacitance of either capacitor
The value of either capacitor
The total capacitance cannot be determined without knowing the
exact capacitances
3E-14.5
What is the total resistance of two equal, series-connected resistors?
Half the resistance of either resistor
Twice the resistance of either resistor
The value of either resistor
The total resistance cannot be determined without knowing the exact
resistances
3E-14.6
What is the total inductance of two equal, series-connected inductors?
Half the inductance of either inductor, assuming no mutual coupling
Twice the inductance of either inductor, assuming no mutual
coupling
The value of either inductor, assuming no mutual coupling
The total inductance cannot be determined without knowing the exact
inductances
3E-14.7
What is the total capacitance of two equal, series-connected capacitors?
Half the capacitance of either capacitor
Twice the capacitance of either capacitor
The value of either capacitor
The total capacitance cannot be determined without knowing the
exact capacitances
3E-15.1
What is the voltage across a 500 turn secondary winding in a transformer
when the 2250 turn primary is connected to 117-VAC?
2369 volts
526.5 volts
26 volts
5.8 volts
3E-15.2
What is the turns ratio of a transformer to match an audio amplifier
having an output impedance of 200 ohms to a speaker having an impedance of
10 ohms?
4.47 to 1
14.14 to 1
20 to 1
400 to 1
3E-15.3
What is the turns ratio of a transformer to match an audio amplifier
having an output impedance of 600 ohms to a speaker having an impedance of
4 ohms?
12.2 to 1
24.4 to 1
150 to 1
300 to 1
3E-15.4
What is the impedance of a speaker which requires a transformer with a
turns ratio of 24 to 1 to match an audio amplifier having an output impedance
of 2000 ohms?
576 ohms
83.3 ohms
7.0 ohms
3.5 ohms
3E-16.1
What is the voltage that would produce the same amount of heat over time
in a resistive element as would an applied sine wave AC voltage?
A DC voltage equal to the peak-to-peak value of the AC voltage
A DC voltage equal to the RMS value of the AC voltage
A DC voltage equal to the average value of the AC voltage
A DC voltage equal to the peak value of the AC voltage
3E-16.2
What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave which has an RMS voltage
of 117-volts?
82.7 volts
165.5 volts
183.9 volts
330.9 volts
3E-16.3
A sine wave of 17-volts peak is equivalent to how many volts RMS?
8.5 volts
12 volts
24 volts
34 volts
'SUBELEMENT 3BF -- Circuit Components (1 question)
1
3F-1.5
What is the effect of an increase in ambient temperature on the
resistance of a carbon resistor?
The resistance will increase by 20% for every 10 degrees centigrade
that the temperature increases
The resistance stays the same
The resistance change depends on the resistor's temperature
coefficient rating
The resistance becomes time dependent
3F-2.6
What type of capacitor is often used in power supply circuits to filter
the rectified AC?
Disc ceramic
Vacuum variable
Mica
Electrolytic
3F-2.7
What type of capacitor is used in power supply circuits to filter
transient voltage spikes across the transformer secondary winding?
High-value
Trimmer
Vacuum variable
Suppressor
3F-3.5
How do inductors become self-resonant?
Through distributed electromagnetism
Through eddy currents
Through distributed capacitance
Through parasitic hysteresis
3F-4.1
What circuit component can change 120-VAC to 400-VAC?
A transformer
A capacitor
A diode
An SCR
3F-4.2
What is the source of energy connected to in a transformer?
To the secondary winding
To the primary winding
To the core
To the plates
3F-4.3
When there is no load attached to the secondary winding of a
transformer, what is current in the primary winding called?
Magnetizing current
Direct current
Excitation current
Stabilizing current
3F-4.4
In what terms are the primary and secondary windings ratings of a power
transformer usually specified?
Joules per second
Peak inverse voltage
Coulombs per second
Volts or volt-amperes
3F-5.1
What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a power supply rectifier?
The highest transient voltage the diode will handle
1.4 times the AC frequency
The maximum voltage to be applied in the non-conducting direction
2.8 times the AC frequency
3F-5.2
Why must silicon rectifier diodes be thermally protected?
Because of their proximity to the power transformer
Because they will be destroyed if they become too hot
Because of their susceptibility to transient voltages
Because of their use in high-voltage applications
3F-5.4
What are the two major ratings for silicon diode rectifiers of the type
used in power supply circuits which must not be exceeded?
Peak load impedance; peak voltage
Average power; average voltage
Capacitive reactance; avalanche voltage
Peak inverse voltage; average forward current
'SUBELEMENT 3BG -- Practical Circuits (1 question)
1
3G-1.1
Why should a resistor and capacitor be wired in parallel with power
supply rectifier diodes?
To equalize voltage drops and guard against transient voltage
spikes
To ensure that the current through each diode is about the same
To smooth the output waveform
To decrease the output voltage
3G-1.2
What function do capacitors serve when resistors and capacitors are
connected in parallel with high voltage power supply rectifier diodes?
They double or triple the output voltage
They block the alternating current
They protect those diodes that develop back resistance faster than
other diodes
They regulate the output voltage
3G-1.3
What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier
connected to a resistive load?
A steady DC voltage
A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
A series of pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
A series of pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
3G-1.4
How many degrees of each cycle does a half-wave rectifier utilize?
90 degrees
180 degrees
270 degrees
360 degrees
3G-1.5
How many degrees of each cycle does a full-wave rectifier utilize?
90 degrees
180 degrees
270 degrees
360 degrees
3G-1.6
Where is a power supply bleeder resistor connected?
Across the filter capacitor
Across the power-supply input
Between the transformer primary and secondary
Across the inductor in the output filter
3G-1.7
What components comprise a power supply filter network?
Diodes
Transformers and transistors
Quartz crystals
Capacitors and inductors
3G-1.8
What should be the peak-inverse-voltage rating of the rectifier in a
full-wave power supply?
One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
3G-1.9
What should be the peak-inverse-voltage rating of the rectifier in a
half-wave power supply?
One-quarter to one-half the normal peak output voltage of the power
supply
Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
One to two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
3G-2.8
What should the impedance of a low-pass filter be as compared to the
impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?
Substantially higher
About the same
Substantially lower
Twice the transmission line impedance
'SUBELEMENT 3BH -- Signals and Emissions (2 questions)
2
3H-2.1
What is the term for alteration of the amplitude of an RF wave for the
purpose of conveying information?
Frequency modulation
Phase modulation
Amplitude rectification
Amplitude modulation
3H-2.3
What is the term for alteration of the phase of an RF wave for the
purpose of conveying information?
Pulse modulation
Phase modulation
Phase rectification
Amplitude modulation
3H-2.4
What is the term for alteration of the frequency of an RF wave for the
purpose of conveying information?
Phase rectification
Frequency rectification
Amplitude modulation
Frequency modulation
3H-3.1
In what emission type does the instantaneous amplitude (envelope) of the
RF signal vary in accordance with the modulating AF?
Frequency shift keying
Pulse modulation
Frequency modulation
Amplitude modulation
3H-3.2
What determines the spectrum space occupied by each group of sidebands
generated by a correctly operating emission A3E transmitter?
The audio frequencies used to modulate the transmitter
The phase angle between the audio and radio frequencies being mixed
The radio frequencies used in the transmitter's VFO
The CW keying speed
3H-4.1
How much is the carrier suppressed in an emission J3E transmission?
No more than 20 dB below peak output power
No more than 30 dB below peak output power
At least 40 dB below peak output power
At least 60 dB below peak output power
3H-4.2
What is one advantage of carrier suppression in an emission A3E
transmission?
Only half the bandwidth is required for the same information
content
Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
More power can be put into the sidebands
Simpler equipment can be used to receive a double-sideband
suppressed-carrier signal
3H-5.1
Which one of the telephony emissions popular with amateurs occupies the
narrowest band of frequencies?
Single-sideband emission
Double-sideband emission
Phase-modulated emission
Frequency-modulated emission
3H-5.2
Which emission type is produced by a telephony transmitter having a
balanced modulator followed by a 2.5-kHz bandpass filter?
PM
AM
SSB
FM
3H-7.2
What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to an RF
power amplifier?
Multiplex modulation
Phase modulation
Amplitude modulation
Pulse modulation
3H-8.1
What purpose does the carrier serve in an emission A3E transmission?
The carrier separates the sidebands so they don't cancel in the
receiver
The carrier contains the modulation information
The carrier maintains symmetry of the sidebands to prevent
distortion
The carrier serves as a reference signal for demodulation by an
envelope detector
3H-8.2
What signal component appears in the center of the frequency band of an
emission A3E transmission?
The lower sidebands
The subcarrier
The carrier
The pilot tone
3H-9.1
What sidebands are generated by an emission A3E transmitter with a
7250-kHz carrier modulated less than 100% by an 800-Hz pure sine wave?
7250.8 kHz and 7251.6 kHz
7250.0 kHz and 7250.8 kHz
7249.2 kHz and 7250.8 kHz
7248.4 kHz and 7249.2 kHz
3H-10.1
How many times over the maximum deviation is the bandwidth of an
emission F3E transmission?
1.5
At least 2.0
At least 4.0
The bandwidth cannot be determined without knowing the exact
carrier and modulating frequencies involved
3H-10.2
What is the total bandwidth of an emission F3E transmission having 5-kHz
deviation and 3-kHz AF?
3 kHz
5 kHz
8 kHz
16 kHz
3H-11.1
What happens to the shape of the RF envelope, as viewed on an
oscilloscope, of an emission A3E transmission?
The amplitude of the envelope increases and decreases in proportion
to the modulating signal
The amplitude of the envelope remains constant
The brightness of the envelope increases and decreases in
proportion to the modulating signal
The frequency of the envelope increases and decreases in proportion
to the amplitude of the modulating signal
3H-13.1
What results when an emission J3E transmitter is overmodulated?
The signal becomes louder with no other effects
The signal occupies less bandwidth with poor high frequency
response
The signal has higher fidelity and improved signal-to-noise ratio
The signal becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth
3H-13.2
What results when an emission A3E transmitter is overmodulated?
The signal becomes louder with no other effects
The signal becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth
The signal occupies less bandwidth with poor high frequency
response
The transmitter's carrier frequency deviates
3H-15.1
What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21-MHz reactance-modulated
oscillator in a 5-kHz deviation, 146.52-MHz F3E transmitter?
41.67 Hz
416.7 Hz
5 kHz
12 kHz
3H-15.2
What stage in a transmitter would translate a 5.3-MHz input signal to
14.3-MHz?
A mixer
A beat frequency oscillator
A frequency multiplier
A linear translator stage
3H-16.4
How many frequency components are in the signal from an AF shift keyer
at any instant?
One
Two
Three
Four
3H-16.5
How is frequency shift related to keying speed in an FSK signal?
The frequency shift in Hertz must be at least four times the keying
speed in WPM
The frequency shift must not exceed 15 Hz per WPM of keying speed
Greater keying speeds require greater frequency shifts
Greater keying speeds require smaller frequency shifts
'SUBELEMENT 3BI -- Antennas and Feed Lines (4 questions)
4
3I-1.3
Why is a Yagi antenna often used for radiocommunications on the 20 meter
band?
It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the horizontal
plane
It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a dipole or
vertical antenna
It discriminates against interference from other stations off to
the side or behind
It provides the highest possible angle of radiation for the HF
bands
3I-1.7
What method is best suited to match an unbalanced coaxial feed line to
a Yagi antenna?
"T" match
Delta match
Hairpin match
Gamma match
3I-1.9
How can the bandwidth of a parasitic beam antenna be increased?
Use larger diameter elements
Use closer element spacing
Use traps on the elements
Use tapered-diameter elements
3I-2.1
How much gain over a half-wave dipole can a two-element cubical quad
antenna provide?
Approximately 0.6 dB
Approximately 2 dB
Approximately 6 dB
Approximately 12 dB
3I-3.1
How long is each side of a cubical quad antenna driven element for
21.4-MHz?
1.17 feet
11.7 feet
47 feet
469 feet
3I-3.2
How long is each side of a cubical quad antenna driven element for
14.3-MHz?
1.75 feet
17.6 feet
23.4 feet
70.3 feet
3I-3.3
How long is each side of a cubical quad antenna reflector element for
29.6-MHz?
8.23 feet
8.7 feet
9.7 feet
34.8 feet
3I-3.4
How long is each leg of a symmetrical delta loop antenna driven element
for 28.7-MHz?
8.75 feet
11.32 feet
11.7 feet
35 feet
3I-3.5
How long is each leg of a symmetrical delta loop antenna driven element
for 24.9-MHz?
10.09 feet
13.05 feet
13.45 feet
40.36 feet
3I-3.6
How long is each leg of a symmetrical delta loop antenna reflector
element for 14.1-MHz?
18.26 feet
23.76 feet
24.35 feet
73.05 feet
3I-3.7
How long is the driven element of a Yagi antenna for 14.0-MHz?
Approximately 17 feet
Approximately 33 feet
Approximately 35 feet
Approximately 66 feet
3I-3.8
How long is the director element of a Yagi antenna for 21.1-MHz?
Approximately 42 feet
Approximately 21 feet
Approximately 17 feet
Approximately 10.5 feet
3I-3.9
How long is the reflector element of a Yagi antenna for 28.1-MHz?
Approximately 8.75 feet
Approximately 16.6 feet
Approximately 17.5 feet
Approximately 35 feet
3I-5.1
What is the feed-point impedance for a half-wavelength dipole HF antenna
suspended horizontally one-quarter wavelength or more above the ground?
Approximately 50 ohms, resistive
Approximately 73 ohms, resistive and inductive
Approximately 50 ohms, resistive and capacitive
Approximately 73 ohms, resistive
3I-5.2
What is the feed-point impedance of a quarter-wavelength vertical HF
antenna with a horizontal ground plane?
Approximately 18 ohms
Approximately 36 ohms
Approximately 52 ohms
Approximately 72 ohms
3I-5.3
What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a ground-plane
antenna?
Sloping the radials downward lowers the radiation angle
Sloping the radials downward brings the feed-point impedance close
to 300 ohms
Sloping the radials downward allows rainwater to run off the
antenna
Sloping the radials downward brings the feed-point impedance closer
to 50 ohms
3I-5.4
What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when
the radials slope downward from the base of the antenna?
The feed-point impedance decreases
The feed-point impedance increases
The feed-point impedance stays the same
The feed-point impedance becomes purely capacitive
3I-6.1
Compared to a dipole antenna, what are the directional radiation
characteristics of a cubical quad HF antenna?
The quad has more directivity in the horizontal plane but less
directivity in the vertical plane
The quad has less directivity in the horizontal plane but more
directivity in the vertical plane
The quad has more directivity in both horizontal and vertical
planes
The quad has less directivity in both horizontal and vertical
planes
3I-6.2
What is the radiation pattern of an ideal half-wavelength dipole HF
antenna?
If it is installed parallel to the earth, it radiates well in a
figure-eight pattern at right angles to the antenna wire
If it is installed parallel to the earth, it radiates well in a
figure-eight pattern off both ends of the antenna wire
If it is installed parallel to the earth, it radiates equally well
in all directions
If it is installed parallel to the earth, the pattern will have two
lobes on one side of the antenna wire, and one larger lobe on the other side
3I-6.3
How does proximity to the ground affect the radiation pattern of a
horizontal dipole HF antenna?
If the antenna is too far from the ground, the pattern becomes
unpredictable
If the antenna is less than one-half wavelength from the ground,
reflected radio waves from the ground distort the radiation pattern of the
antenna
A dipole antenna's radiation pattern is unaffected by its distance
to the ground
If the antenna is less than one-half wavelength from the ground,
radiation off the ends of the wire is reduced
3I-6.4
What does the term antenna front-to-back ratio mean?
The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
The relative position of the driven element with respect to the
reflectors and directors
The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the
power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the
power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction
3I-6.5
What effect upon the radiation pattern of an HF dipole antenna will a
slightly smaller parasitic parallel element located a few feet away in the
same horizontal plane have?
The radiation pattern will not change appreciably
A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel to the
two elements
A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from the
ground
If the spacing is greater than 0.1 wavelength, a major lobe will
develop in the horizontal plane to the side of the driven element toward the
parasitic element
3I-6.6
What is the meaning of the term main lobe as used in reference to a
directional antenna?
The direction of least radiation from an antenna
The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
The direction of maximum radiated field strength from a radiating
antenna
The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
3I-7.1
Upon what does the characteristic impedance of a parallel-conductor
antenna feed line depend?
The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius
of the conductors
The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length
of the line
The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
3I-7.2
What is the characteristic impedance of various coaxial cables commonly
used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?
Around 25 and 30 ohms
Around 50 and 75 ohms
Around 80 and 100 ohms
Around 500 and 750 ohms
3I-7.3
What effect, if any, does the length of a coaxial cable have upon its
characteristic impedance?
The length has no effect on the characteristic impedance
The length affects the characteristic impedance primarily above 144
MHz
The length affects the characteristic impedance primarily below 144
MHz
The length affects the characteristic impedance at any frequency
3I-7.4
What is the characteristic impedance of flat-ribbon TV-type twinlead?
50 ohms
75 ohms
100 ohms
300 ohms
3I-8.4
What is the cause of power being reflected back down an antenna feed
line?
Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed-point
impedance
Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
3I-9.3
What will be the standing wave ratio when a 50 ohm feed line is
connected to a resonant antenna having a 200 ohm feed-point impedance?
4:1
1:4
2:1
1:2
3I-9.4
What will be the standing wave ratio when a 50 ohm feed line is
connected to a resonant antenna having a 10 ohm feed-point impedance?
2:1
50:1
1:5
5:1
3I-9.5
What will be the standing wave ratio when a 50 ohm feed line is
connected to a resonant antenna having a 50 ohm feed-point impedance?
2:1
50:50
1:1
0:0
3I-11.1
How does the characteristic impedance of a coaxial cable affect the
amount of attenuation to the RF signal passing through it?
The attenuation is affected more by the characteristic impedance
at frequencies above 144 MHz than at frequencies below 144 MHz
The attenuation is affected less by the characteristic impedance
at frequencies above 144 MHz than at frequencies below 144 MHz
The attenuation related to the characteristic impedance is about
the same at all amateur frequencies below 1.5 GHz
The difference in attenuation depends on the emission type in use
3I-11.2
How does the amount of attenuation to a 2 meter signal passing through
a coaxial cable differ from that to a 160 meter signal?
The attenuation is greater at 2 meters
The attenuation is less at 2 meters
The attenuation is the same at both frequencies
The difference in attenuation depends on the emission type in use
3I-11.4
What is the effect on its attenuation when flat-ribbon TV-type twinlead
is wet?
Attenuation decreases slightly
Attenuation remains the same
Attenuation decreases sharply
Attenuation increases
3I-11.7
Why might silicone grease or automotive car wax be applied to
flat-ribbon TV-type twinlead?
To reduce "skin effect" losses on the conductors
To reduce the buildup of dirt and moisture on the feed line
To increase the velocity factor of the feed line
To help dissipate heat during high-SWR operation
3I-11.8
In what values are RF feed line losses usually expressed?
Bels/1000 ft
dB/1000 ft
Bels/100 ft
dB/100 ft
3I-11.10
As the operating frequency increases, what happens to the dielectric
losses in a feed line?
The losses decrease
The losses decrease to zero
The losses remain the same
The losses increase
3I-11.12
As the operating frequency decreases, what happens to the dielectric
losses in a feed line?
The losses decrease
The losses increase
The losses remain the same
The losses become infinite
3I-12.1
What condition must be satisfied to prevent standing waves of voltage
and current on an antenna feed line?
The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter
wavelengths long
The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths
long
The antenna feed-point impedance must be matched to the
characteristic impedance of the feed line
3I-12.2
How is an inductively-coupled matching network used in an antenna system
consisting of a center-fed resonant dipole and coaxial feed line?
An inductively coupled matching network is not normally used in a
resonant antenna system
An inductively coupled matching network is used to increase the SWR
to an acceptable level
An inductively coupled matching network can be used to match the
unbalanced condition at the transmitter output to the balanced condition
required by the coaxial line
An inductively coupled matching network can be used at the antenna
feed point to tune out the radiation resistance
3I-12.5
What is an antenna-transmission line mismatch?
A condition where the feed-point impedance of the antenna does not
equal the output impedance of the transmitter
A condition where the output impedance of the transmitter does not
equal the characteristic impedance of the feed line
A condition where a half-wavelength antenna is being fed with a
transmission line of some length other than one-quarter wavelength at the
operating frequency
A condition where the characteristic impedance of the feed line
does not equal the feed-point impedance of the antenna