HAM Radio 3/hamradioversion3.0examsandprograms1992.iso/exam/extra/extra.ful

Text File | 1990-12-26 | 182KB | 5,351 lines

DATE
EXTRA Database.  Updated: 26-Dec-90
&&
AUTHOR
DX PacketCluster EXTRA database by:
   Chuck Strobel, K6PBT
   P. O. Box 883
   Magalia, CA 95954-0883

Please send updates, corrections or comments,
to the above address or via:
   CompuServe 75056,644
   Prodigy DCGP94A
   PacketCluster DXPSN Node:W6GO
   DX-BBS [phone]

Include date/version of database.  Type SH/EXTRA DATE.
&&
#LIS
The SHow/EXTRA command displays questions and answers for the Extra Class
Amateur Radio license FCC examination.  Type SH/EXTRA n, for Question;
SH/EXTRA nA, for the Answer.  Letter n = number, i.e. SH/EXTRA 73 or 73A.
For Element 4B question categories and other data, type SH/EXTRA CLASS.

Your updates and comments are welcomed.  Type SH/EXTRA AUTHOR for info.
Database by: K6PBT     Distributed by W6GO/K6HHD via DX-BBS and GODISK.
&&
#INSTALL

PRIMARY SERVING NODE:
---------------------
To install EXTRA, load the following files into your PACKCLUS\DB directory:

   EXTRA.LIS    Shown to user if no argument used with SH/EXTRA
   EXTRA.FUL    The database file
   EXTRA.IDX    The database index
   EXTRA.PRE    Shown to user before the specific request
   EXTRA.POS    Shown to user after the specific request
   EXTRA.NF     Shown to user if requested information not found
   EXTRA.AOK    Shown to user if update is attempted

NOTE:  The database index may not always be included.  If it is missing,
       you will need to perform the following using the MAKEIDX utility:

       MAKEIDX EXTRA.FUL 2700

Next, add the following lines to your SYSOP.DAT file:

SET/COMMAND EXTRA EXTRA.LIS EXTRA.FUL/EXTRA.IDX EXTRA.PRE EXTRA.POS EXTRA.NF
SET/COMMAND/COMMENT EXTRA  Element 4B Extra Class Q & A

If you did not shut down the node to install the database, type in the
above two lines as SYSOP commands.

After reviewing the DOC files, PBT_DB.DOC and EXTRA.DOC, you may delete them
from your database directory.  You should store the database ZIP file in a
save place.

REMOTE NODE:
------------
Other nodes may access the database from the SERVING node by adding lines
to their SYSOP.DAT and/or typing in the lines as a command.  If the callsign
of the node where the database is installed is WB6EXC, then the other nodes
would execute the following commands:

SET/COMMAND EXTRA * * * * * WB6EXC
SET/COMMAND/COMMENT EXTRA  Element 4B Extra Class Q & A

CLUSTER COMPANION:
------------------
Users of Cluster Companion should install the database following the same
procedure as PRIMARY SERVING NODE above, but observing the proper directory
and callsign entries for that user.

PCDB:
-----
Users of the PacketCluster Database Reader program should install the
database files into the directory shown in the SET/DIRECTORY line of their
SYSOP.DAT file.  If no entry, install in same directory where PCDB resides.
The following command in SYSOP.DAT should be entered:

SET/COMMAND EXTRA #LIS EXTRA.FUL/EXTRA.IDX #PRE #POS #NF

An additional (optional) entry would be:

SET/COMMAND/COMMENT EXTRA  Element 4B Extra Class Q & A

DIFFICULTY:
-----------
Should any difficulty be experienced installing any database files, or you
need more information, you may wish to read over Database Installation in
your manual (or DOC file) with PacketCluster, Cluster Companion, or PCDB.

* * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *

Please read the file PBT_DB.DOC which is included with the EXTRA.ZIP file.
This file contains information on other databases, where and how you may
obtain them.

PacketCluster, Cluster Companion, and PacketCluster Database Reader (PCDB)
are trademarks of Pavillion Software.
&&
#PRE
DX PacketCluster - EXTRA Class Amateur Radio Q & A:
&&
#POS
Type SH/EXTRA n, for Question; SH/EXTRA nA, for the Answer.  [n = number]
&&
#NF
EXTRA: %s not found!  Was key correct?  Try again, or type SH/EXTRA.
&&
#AOK
!This database is read-only.  Please type SH/EXTRA AUTHOR for update info.
&&
CLASS
The questions and answers provided here represent those from the VEC Q&A
pool effective through --/--/----.  These questions are in categories as
follows:  [number in () are number of questions selected for the test]

Subelement 4BA - Commission's Rules         (8)  Q 1   to 117
Subelement 4BB - Operating Practices        (4)  Q 118 to 138
Subelement 4BC - Radio Wave Propagation     (2)  Q 139 to 150
Subelement 4BD - Amateur Radio Practices    (4)  Q 151 to 177
Subelement 4BE - Electrical Principles      (6)  Q 178 to 242
Subelement 4BF - Circuit Components         (4)  Q 243 to 278
Subelement 4BG - Practical Circuits         (4)  Q 279 to 347
Subelement 4BH - Signals and Emissions      (4)  Q 348 to 391
Subelement 4BI - Antennas and Feedlines     (4)  Q 392 to 440

Questions which contain schematics/symbols are shown, but are very crude
in their display.  As such, in most cases, only two selections for an
answer will be given.  Sorry, but I'm no artist!

&&
1
1. What exclusive frequency privileges in the 80-meter band are authorized
to Amateur Extra control operators?
   A. 3525-3775 kHz
   B. 3500-3525 kHz
   C. 3700-3750 kHz
   D. 3500-3550 kHz
&&
2
2. What exclusive frequency privileges in the 75-meter band are authorized
to Amateur Extra control operators?
   A. 3750-3775 kHz
   B. 3800-3850 kHz
   C. 3775-3800 kHz
   D. 3800-3825 kHz
&&
3
3. What exclusive frequency privileges in the 40-meter band are authorized
to Amateur Extra control operators?
   A. 7000-7025 kHz
   B. 7000-7050 kHz
   C. 7025-7050 kHz
   D. 7100-7150 kHz
&&
4
4. What exclusive frequency privileges in the 20-meter band are authorized
to Amateur Extra control operators?
   A. 14.100-14.175 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz
   B. 14.000-14.125 MHz and 14.250-14.300 MHz
   C. 14.025-14.050 MHz and 14.100-14.150 MHz
   D. 14.000-14.025 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz
&&
5
5. What exclusive frequency privileges in the 15-meter band are authorized
to Amateur Extra control operators?
   A. 21.000-21.200 MHz and 21.250-21.270 MHz
   B. 21.050-21.100 MHz and 21.150-21.175 MHz
   C. 21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.200-21.225 MHz
   D. 21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.250-21.275 MHz
&&
6
6. What is a spurious emission or radiation?
   A. As defined by Section 97.73, any emission or radiation falling
      outside the amateur band being used
   B. As defined by Section 97.73, any emission or radiation other
      than the fundamental that exceeds 25 microwatts, regardless
      of frequency
   C. As defined by Section 97.73, any emission or radiation other
      than the fundamental that exceeds 10 microwatts, regardless
      of frequency
   D. As defined by Section 97.73, any emission or radiation falling
      outside the amateur band that exceeds 25 microwatts
&&
7
7. How much must the mean power of any spurious emission or radiation
from an amateur transmitter be attenuated when the carrier frequency
is below 30 MHz and the mean transmitted power is equal to or greater
than 5 watts?
   A. At least 30 dB below the mean power of the fundamental,
      and less than 25 mW
   B. At least 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental,
      and less than 50 mW
   C. At least 30 dB below the mean power of the fundamental,
      and less than 50 mW
   D. At least 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental,
      and less than 25 mW
&&
8
8. How much must the mean power of any spurious emission or radiation
from an amateur transmitter be attenuated when the carrier frequency
is above 30 MHz but below 225 MHz and the mean transmitted power is
greater than 25 watts?
   A. At least 30 dB below mean power of the fundamental
   B. At least 40 dB below mean power of the fundamental
   C. At least 50 dB below mean power of the fundamental
   D. At least 60 dB below mean power of the fundamental
&&
9
9. What can the FCC require the licensee to do if any spurious radiation
from an amateur station causes harmful interference to the reception of
another radio station?
   A. Reduce the spurious emissions to 0 dB below the fundamental
   B. Observe quiet hours and pay a fine
   C. Forfeit the station license and pay a fine
   D. Eliminate or reduce the interference
&&
10
10. What are the points of communication for an amateur station?
   A. Other amateur stations only
   B. Other amateur stations and other stations authorized by the FCC
      to communicate with amateurs
   C. Other amateur stations and stations in the Personal Radio Service
   D. Other amateur stations and stations in the Aviation or Private
      Land Mobile Radio Services
&&
11
11. With which stations may an amateur station communicate?
   A. Amateur, RACES and FCC Monitoring stations
   B. Amateur stations and any other station authorized by the FCC
      to communicate with amateur stations
   C. Amateur stations only
   D. Amateur stations and US Government stations
&&
12
12. Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station communicate
with a non-amateur station?
   A. Only during emergencies and when the Commission has authorized
      the non-amateur station to communicate with amateur stations
   B. Under no circumstances
   C. Only when the state governor has authorized that station to
      communicate with amateurs
   D. Only during Public Service events in connection with REACT groups
&&
13
13. What rules must US citizens comply with when operating an Amateur
Radio station in international waters?
   A. The FCC rules contained in Part 15
   B. The FCC rules contained in Part 97
   C. The IARU rules governing international operation
   D. There are no rules governing Amateur Radio operation in
      international waters
&&
14
14. An Amateur Radio station is installed on board a ship or aircraft
in a compartment separate from the main radio installation.  What other
conditions must the amateur operator comply with?
   A. The Amateur Radio operation must be approved by the master of
      the ship of the captain of the aircraft
   B. There must be an approved antenna switch included, so the amateur
      can use the ship or aircraft antennas, transmitting only when the
      main radios are not in use
   C. The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely
      independent of the ship or aircraft power
   D. The Amateur Radio operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft
      endorsement on his or her Amateur license
&&
15
15. What types of licenses or permits are required before an amateur
operator may transmit from a vessel registered in the US?
   A. No amateur license is required outside of international waters
   B. Any Amateur Radio license or Reciprocal Operating Permit issued
      by the FCC
   C. Only amateur licensees General class or above may transmit on
      a vessel registered in the US
   D. Only an Amateur Extra Class licensee may operate aboard a vessel
      registered in the US
&&
16
16. What is an FCC Reciprocal Operating Permit?
   A. An FCC authorization to a holder of an amateur license issued
      by certain foreign governments to operate an Amateur Radio station
      in the United States and its possessions
   B. An FCC permit to allow a United States licensed amateur to operate
      his station in a foreign nation, except Canada
   C. An FCC permit allowing a foreign licensed amateur to handle traffic
      between the United States and the amateur's own nation, subject to
      FCC rules on traffic handling and third-party messages
   D. An FCC permit to a commercial telecommunications company allowing
      that company to pay amateurs to handle traffic during emergencies
&&
17
17. Who is eligible for an FCC Reciprocal Operating Permit?
   A. Anyone holding a valid Amateur Radio license issued by a foreign
      government
   B. Anyone holding a valid Amateur Radio license issued by a foreign
      government with which the United States has a reciprocal operating
      agreement, providing that person is not a United States citizen
   C. Anyone who holds a valid Amateur Radio license issued by a foreign
      government with which the United States has a reciprocal operating
      agreement
   D. Anyone other than a United States citizen who holds a valid Amateur
      Radio or shortwave listener's license issued by a foreign government
&&
18
18. Under what circumstances, if any, is a US citizen holding a foreign
Amateur Radio license eligible to obtain an FCC Reciprocal Operating Permit?
   A. A US Citizen is not eligible to obtain a Reciprocal Operating
      Permit for use in the United States
   B. Only if the applicant brings his or her equipment from the foreign
      country
   C. Only if that person is unable to qualify for a United States
      amateur license
   D. If the applicant does not hold an FCC license as of the date of
      application, but had held a US amateur license other than Novice
      class less than 10 years before the date of application
&&
19
19. What are the operator frequency privileges authorized by an FCC
Reciprocal Operating Permit?
   A. Those authorized to a holder of the equivalent United States
      amateur license, unless the FCC specifies otherwise by endorsement
      on the permit
   B. Those that the holder of the Reciprocal Operating Permit would
      have if he were in his own country
   C. Only those frequencies permitted to United States amateurs that
      the holder of the Reciprocal Operating Permit would have in his
      own country, unless the FCC specifies otherwise
   D. Only those frequencies approved by the International Amateur
      Radio Union, unless the FCC specifies otherwise
&&
20
20. How does an alien operator identify an Amateur Radio station when
operating under an FCC Reciprocal Operating Permit?
   A. By using only his or her own call
   B. By using his or her own call, followed by the city and state
      in the United States or possessions closest to his or her present
      location
   C. By using his or her own call, followed by the letter(s) and
      number indicating the United States call-letter district of his
      or her location at the time of the contact, with the city and
      state nearest the location specified once during each contact
   D. By using his or her own call sign, followed by the serial number
      of the Reciprocal Operating Permit and the call-letter district
      number of his or her present location
&&
21
21. What is RACES?
   A. An Amateur Radio network for providing emergency communications
      during long-distance athletic contests
   B. The Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service
   C. The Radio Amateur Corps for Engineering Services
   D. An Amateur Radio network providing emergency communications for
      transoceanic boat or aircraft races
&&
22
22. What is the purpose of RACES?
   A. To provide civil-defense communications during emergencies
   B. To provide emergency communications for transoceanic boat or
      aircraft races
   C. To provide routine and emergency communications for long-distance
      athletic events
   D. To provide routine and emergency communications for large-scale
      international events, such as the Olympic games
&&
23
23. With what other organization must an Amateur Radio station be registered
before RACES registration is permitted?
   A. The Amateur Radio Emergency Service
   B. The US Department of Defense
   C. A Civil Defense organization
   D. The Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC Field Operations Bureau
&&
24
24. Who may be the control operator of a RACES station?
   A. Anyone who holds a valid FCC amateur operator's license other
      than Novice
   B. Only an Amateur Extra Class licensee
   C. Anyone who holds an FCC Amateur Radio license other than Novice
      and is certified by a Civil Defense organization
   D. Anyone who holds an FCC Amateur Radio license and is certified
      by a Civil Defense organization
&&
25
25. What additional operator privileges are granted to an Amateur Extra
Class operator registered with RACES?
   A. None
   B. Permission to operate CW on 5167.5 kHz
   C. Permission to operate an unattended HF packet radio station
   D. Permission to operate on the 237-MHz Civil Defense band
&&
26
26. What frequencies are normally available for RACES operation?
   A. Only those frequencies authorized by the ARRL Section Emergency
      Coordinator
   B. Only those frequencies listed in Section 97.8
   C. Only transmitting frequencies in the top 25 kHz of each Amateur band
   D. All frequencies available to the Amateur Radio Service
&&
27
27. What type of emergency can cause a limitation on the frequencies
available for RACES operation?
   A. An emergency in which the President invokes the War Emergency Powers
      under the provisions of the Communications Act of 1934
   B. RACES operations must be confined to a single frequency band if the
      emergency is contained within a single state
   C. RACES operations must be conducted on a VHF band if the emergency
      is confined to an area 25 miles or less in radius
   D. The Red Cross may limit available frequencies if the emergency
      involves no immediate danger of loss of life
&&
28
28. Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?
   A. Only Extra Class Amateur Radio stations
   B. Any licensed Amateur Radio station except a station licensed to
      a Novice
   C. Any licensed Amateur Radio station certified by the responsible
      Civil Defense organization
   D. Any licensed Amateur Radio station other than a station licensed
      to a Novice, providing the station is certified by the responsible
      Civil Defense organization
&&
29
29. What are the points of communications for amateur stations operated
in RACES and certified by the responsible Civil Defense organization as
registered with that organization?
   A. Any RACES, Civil Defense, or Disaster Communications Service station
   B. Any RACES stations and any FCC licensed amateur stations except
      stations licensed to Novices
   C. Any FCC licensed amateur station or a station in the Disaster
      Communications Service
   D. Any FCC licensed amateur station except stations licensed to Novices
&&
30
30. What are permissible communications in RACES?
   A. Any communications concerning local traffic nets
   B. Any communications concerning the Amateur Radio Emergency Service
   C. Any communications concerning national defense and security or
      immediate safety of people and property that are authorized by
      the area Civil Defense organization
   D. Any communications concerning national defense or security or
      immediate safety of people or property but only when a state of
      emergency has been declared by the President, the governor, or
      other authorized official, and then only so long as the state
      of emergency endures
&&
31
31. What are the purposes of the Amateur Satellite Service?
   A. It is a radionavigation service using stations on earth satellites
      for the same purposes as those of the Amateur Radio Service
   B. It is a radiocommunication service using stations on earth satellites
      for weather information
   C. It is a radiocommunication service using stations on earth satellites
      for the same purpose as those of the Amateur Radio Service
   D. It is a radiolocation service using stations on earth satellites for
      Amateur Radio operators engaged in satellite radar experimentation
&&
32
32. What are some frequencies available for space operation?
   A. 7.0-7.1, 14.00-14.25, 21.00-21.45, 24.890-24.990, 28.00-29.70,
      144-146, 435-438 and 24,000-24,050 MHz
   B. 7.0-7.3, 21.00-21.45, 28.00-29.70, 144-146, 432-438 and
      24,000-24,050 MHz
   C. All frequencies available to the Amateur Radio Service, providing
      license-class, power and emission-type restrictions are observed
   D. Only frequencies available to Amateur Extra Class licensees
&&
33
33. What is the term used to describe an earth-to-space Amateur Radio
communication that controls the functions of an amateur satellite?
   A. Space operation
   B. Telecommand operation
   C. Earth operation
   D. Control operation
&&
34
34. Which amateur stations are eligible for telecommand operation?
   A. Any Amateur Radio licensee except Novice
   B. Amateur Extra Class licensees only
   C. Telecommand operation is not permitted in the amateur satellite
      service
   D. Any Amateur Radio station designated by the space station licensee
&&
35
35. What term is used to describe space-to-earth transmissions that
communicate the results of measurements made by a station in space
operation?
   A. Data transmission
   B. Frame check sequence
   C. Telemetry
   D. Telecommand operation
&&
36
36. What is the term used to describe Amateur Radio communication from
a station that is beyond the major portion of the earth's atmosphere?
   A. EME
   B. Exospheric operation
   C. Downlink
   D. Space operation
&&
37
37. Which amateur stations are eligible for space operation?
   A. Any licensee except Novice
   B. General, Advanced and Extra Class licensees only
   C. Advanced and Extra Class licensees only
   D. Amateur Extra Class licensees only
&&
38
38. When must the licensee of a station scheduled for space operation
give the FCC written pre-space notification?
   A. 3 months to 72 hours prior to initiating space operation
   B. 6 months to 3 months prior to initiating space operation
   C. 12 months to 3 months prior to initiating space operation
   D. 27 months to 3 months prior to initiating space operation
&&
39
39. When must the licensee of a station in space operation give the FCC
written in-space notification?
   A. No later than 24 hours following initiation of space operation
   B. No later than 72 hours following initiation of space operation
   C. No later than 7 days following initiation of space operation
   D. No later than 30 days following initiation of space operation
&&
40
40. When must the licensee of a station in space operation give the FCC
written post-space notification?
   A. No later than 48 hours after termination is complete,
      under normal circumstances
   B. No later than 72 hours after termination is complete,
      under normal circumstances
   C. No later than 7 days after termination is complete,
      under normal circumstances
   D. No later than 3 months after termination is complete,
      under normal circumstances
&&
41
41. What term describes earth-to-space-to-earth Amateur Radio communication
by means of radio signals automatically retransmitted by a station in space
operation?
   A. Earth operation
   B. ESE
   C. Repeater operation
   D. Auxiliary operation
&&
42
42. Which amateur stations are eligible for earth operation?
   A. Any Amateur Radio station
   B. Amateur Extra Class licensees only
   C. Any licensee except Novice
   D. A special license issued by the FCC is required before any Amateur
      Radio station is placed in earth operation
&&
43
43. What is a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator?
   A. An organization that is authorized to administer FCC Amateur Radio
      license examinations to candidates for the Novice license
   B. An organization that is authorized to administer FCC Amateur Radio
      examinations for any class of license other than Novice
   C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to
      coordinate the efforts of Volunteer Examiners in preparing and
      administering examinations for Amateur Radio operator licenses
   D. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to
      coordinate efforts of Volunteer Examiners in preparing and
      administering examinations for Amateur Radio operator licenses
      other than Novice
&&
44
44. What are the requirements to be a VEC
   A. Be engaged in the manufacture and/or sale of amateur equipment or
      in the coordination of amateur activities throughout at least one
      call-letter district; and agree to abide by FCC Rules concerning
      administration of Amateur Radio examinations
   B. Be organized at least partially for the purpose of furthering Amateur
      Radio; be at least regional in scope; and agree to abide by FCC Rules
      concerning coordination of Amateur Radio examinations
   C. Be organized at least partially for the purpose of furthering Amateur
      Radio; be, at the most, county-wide in scope; and agree to abide by
      FCC Rules concerning administration of Amateur Radio examinations
   D. Be engaged in a business related to Amateur Radio; and agree to
      administer Amateur Radio examinations in accordance with FCC Rules
      throughout at least one call-letter district
&&
45
45. What are the functions of a VEC?
   A. Accredit Volunteer Examiners; collect candidates' application forms,
      answer sheets and test results and forward the applications to the
      FCC; maintain pools of questions for Amateur Radio examinations;
      and perform other clerical tasks in accordance with FCC Rules
   B. Assemble, print and sell FCC-approved examination forms; accredit
      Volunteer Examiners; collect candidates' answer sheets and forward
      them to the FCC; screen applications for completeness and authenticity;
      and perform other clerical tasks in accordance with FCC Rules
   C. Accredit Volunteer Examiners; certify that examiners' equipment is
      type-accepted by the FCC; assemble, print and distribute FCC-approved
      examination forms; and perform other clerical tasks in accordance with
      FCC Rules
   D. Maintain pools of questions for Amateur Radio examinations; administer
      code and theory examinations; score and forward the test papers to the
      FCC so that the appropriate license may be issued to each successful
      candidate
&&
46
46. Where are the questions listed that must be used in written examinations?
   A. In the appropriate VEC question pool
   B. In PR Bulletin 1035C
   C. In PL 97-259
   D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
&&
47
47. How is an Element 3(A) examination prepared?
   A. By Advanced or Extra Class Volunteer Examiners or Volunteer-Examiner
      Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
   B. By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the
      appropriate FCC bulletin
   C. By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners selecting questions from the
      appropriate FCC bulletin
   D. By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
&&
48
48. How is an Element 3(B) examination prepared?
   A. By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
      selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
   B. By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the
      appropriate FCC bulletin
   C. By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners selecting questions from the
      appropriate FCC bulletin
   D. By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
&&
49
49. How is an Element 4(A) examination prepared?
   A. By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
      selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
   B. By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the
      appropriate FCC bulletin
   C. By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners selecting questions from the
      appropriate FCC bulletin
   D. By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
&&
50
50. How is an Element 4(B) examination prepared?
   A. By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
      selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
   B. By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the
      appropriate FCC bulletin
   C. By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners selecting questions from the
      appropriate FCC bulletin
   D. By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
&&
51
51. What organization coordinates the dates and times for scheduling Amateur
Radio examinations?
   A. The FCC
   B. A VEC
   C. The IARU
   D. Local radio clubs
&&
52
52. Under what circumstances, if any, may a VEC refuse to accredit a person
as a VE on the basis of membership in an Amateur Radio organization?
   A. Under no circumstances
   B. Only when the prospective VE is an ARRL member
   C. Only when the prospective VE is not a member of the local Amateur
      Radio club
   D. Only when the club is at least regional in scope
&&
53
53. Under what circumstances, if any, may a VEC refuse to accredit a person
as a VE on the basis of lack of membership in an Amateur Radio organization?
   A. Under no circumstances
   B. Only when the prospective VE is not an ARRL member
   C. Only when the club is at least regional in scope
   D. Only when the prospective VE is a not a member of the local Amateur
      Radio club giving the examinations
&&
54
54. Under what circumstance, if any, may an organization engaged in the
manufacture of equipment used in connection with Amateur Radio transmissions
be a VEC?
   A. Under no circumstances
   B. If the organization's amateur-related sales are very small
   C. If the organization is manufacturing very specialized amateur equipment
   D. Only upon FCC approval that preventive measures have been taken to
      preclude any possible conflict of interest
&&
55
55. Under what circumstances, if any, may a person who is an employee of a
company that is engaged in the distribution of equipment used in connection
with Amateur Radio transmissions be a VE?
   A. Under no circumstances
   B. Only if the employee's work is not directly related to that part of
      the company involved in the manufacture or distribution of amateur
      equipment
   C. Only if the employee has no financial interest in the company
   D. Only if the employee is an Extra Class licensee
&&
56
56. Under what circumstances, if any, may a person who owns a significant
interest in a company that is engaged in the preparation of publications
used in preparation for obtaining an amateur operator license be a VE?
   A. Under no circumstances
   B. Only if the organization's amateur-related sales are very small
   C. Only if the organization is publishing very specialized material
   D. Only if the person is an Extra Class licensee
&&
57
57. Under what circumstances, if any, may an organization engaged in the
distribution of publications used in preparation for obtaining an amateur
operator license be a VEC?
   A. Under no circumstances
   B. If the organization's amateur publishing business is very small
   C. If the organization is selling the publication at cost to examinees
   D. Only upon FCC approval that preventive measures have been taken to
      preclude any possible conflict of interest
&&
58
58. Who may reimburse VEs and VECs for out-of-pocket expenses incurred in
preparing, processing or administering examinations?
   A. Examinees
   B. FCC
   C. ARRL
   D. FCC and Examiners
&&
59
59. What action must a VEC take against a VE who accepts reimbursement
and fails to provide the annual expense certification?
   A. Suspend the VE's accreditation for 1 year
   B. Disaccredit the VE
   C. Suspend the VE's accreditation and report the information to the FCC
   D. Suspend the VE's accreditation for 6 months
&&
60
60. What type of expense records must be maintained by a VE who accepts
reimbursement?
   A. All out-of-pocket expenses and reimbursements from the examinees
   B. All out-of-pocket expenses only
   C. Reimbursements from examiners only
   D. FCC reimbursements only
&&
61
61. For what period of time must a VE maintain records of out-of-pocket
expenses and reimbursements for each examination session for which
reimbursement is accepted?
   A. 1 year
   B. 2 years
   C. 3 years
   D. 4 years
&&
62
62. By what date each year must a VE forward to the VEC a certification
concerning expenses for which reimbursement was accepted?
   A. December 15 following the year for which the reimbursement
      was accepted
   B. January 15 following the year for which the reimbursement
      was accepted
   C. April 15 following the year for which the reimbursement
      was accepted
   D. October 15 following the year for which the reimbursement
      was accepted
&&
63
63. For what type of services may a VE be reimbursed for out-of-pocket
expenses?
   A. Preparing, processing or administering examinations above the
      Novice class
   B. Preparing, processing or administering examinations including
      the Novice class
   C. A VE cannot be reimbursed for out-of-pocket expenses
   D. Only for preparation of examination elements
&&
64
64. What is an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
   A. A General class radio amateur who is accredited by a VEC to administer
      examinations to applicants for Amateur Radio licenses
   B. An Amateur Radio operator who is accredited by a VEC to administer
      examinations to applicants for Amateur Radio licenses
   C. An Amateur Radio operator who administers examinations to applicants
      for Amateur Radio licenses for a fee
   D. An FCC staff member who tests volunteers who want to administer
      Amateur Radio examinations
&&
65
65. What is an accredited VE?
   A. A General class radio amateur who is accredited by a VEC to administer
      examinations to applicants for Amateur Radio licenses
   B. An Amateur Radio operator who is accredited by a VEC to administer
      examinations to applicants for Amateur Radio licenses
   C. An Amateur Radio operator who administers examinations to applicants
      for Amateur Radio licenses for a fee
   D. An FCC staff member who tests volunteers who want to administer
      Amateur Radio examinations
&&
66
66. What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner administering
an examination for a Technician class operator license?
   A. The Volunteer Examiner must be a Novice class licensee accredited
      by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator
   B. The Volunteer Examiner must be an Advanced or Extra Class licensee
      accredited by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator
   C. The Volunteer Examiner must be an Extra Class licensee accredited
      by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator
   D. The Volunteer Examiner must be a General class licensee accredited
      by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator
&&
67
67. What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner administering
an examination for a General class operator license?
   A. The examiner must hold an Advanced class license and be
      accredited by a VEC
   B. The examiner must hold an Extra Class license and be
      accredited by a VEC
   C. The examiner must hold a General class license and be
      accredited by a VEC
   D. The examiner must hold an Extra Class license to administer
      the written test element, but an Advanced class examiner may
      administer the CW test element
&&
68
68. What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner administering
an examination for an Advanced class operator license?
   A. The examiner must hold an Advanced class license and be
      accredited by a VEC
   B. The examiner must hold an Extra Class license and be
      accredited by a VEC
   C. The examiner must hold a General class license and be
      accredited by a VEC
   D. The examiner must hold an Extra Class license to administer
      the written test element, but an Advanced class examiner may
      administer the CW test element
&&
69. What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner administering
an examination for an Amateur Extra Class operator license?
   A. The examiner must hold an Advanced class license and be
      accredited by a VEC
   B. The examiner must hold an Extra Class license and be
      accredited by a VEC
   C. The examiner must hold a General class license and be
      accredited by a VEC
   D. The examiner must hold an Extra Class license to administer
      the written test element, but an Advanced class examiner may
      administer the CW test element
&&
70
70. When is VE accreditation necessary?
   A. Always in order to administer a Technician or higher class license
      examination
   B. Always in order to administer a Novice or higher class license
      examination
   C. Sometimes in order to administer an Advanced or higher class license
      examination
   D. VE accreditation is not necessary in order to administer a General
      or higher class license examination
&&
71
71. What is VE accreditation?
   A. The process by which all Advanced and Extra Class licensees are
      automatically given permission to conduct Amateur Radio examinations
   B. The process by which the FCC tests volunteers who wish to coordinate
      Amateur Radio license examinations
   C. The process by which the prospective VE requests his or her
      requirements for accreditation
   D. The process by which each VEC makes sure its VEs meet FCC requirements
      to serve as Volunteer Examiners
&&
72
72. What are the requirements for VE accreditation?
   A. Hold an Advanced class license or higher; be at least 18 years old;
      not have any conflict of interest; and never had his or her amateur
      license suspended or revoked
   B. Hold an Advanced class license or higher; be at least 16 years old;
      and not have any conflict of interest
   C. Hold an Extra Class license or higher; be at least 18 years old;
      and be a member of ARRL
   D. There are no requirements for accreditation, other than holding
      a General or higher class license
&&
73
73. The services of which persons seeking to be VEs will not be accepted
by the FCC?
   A. Persons with Advanced class licenses
   B. Persons being between 18 and 21 years of age
   C. Persons who have ever had their amateur licenses suspended or revoked
   D. Persons who are employees of the Federal Government
&&
74
74. Under what circumstances, if any, may a person be compensated for
services as a VE?
   A. When the VE spends more than 4 hours at the test session
   B. When the VE loses a day's pay to administer the exam
   C. When the VE spends many hours preparing for the test session
   D. Under no circumstances
&&
75
75. How much money, if any, may a person accept for services as a VE?
   A. None
   B. Up to a half day's pay if the VE spends more than 4 hours
      at the test session
   C. Up to a full day's pay if the VE spends more than 4 hours
      preparing for the test session
   D. Up to $50 if the VE spends more than 4 hours at the test session
&&
76
76. What is an Element 1(A) examination intended to prove?
   A. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 5 WPM
   B. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 13 WPM
   C. The applicant's knowledge of Novice class theory and regulations
   D. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 20 WPM
&&
77
77. What is an Element 1(B) examination intended to prove?
   A. The applicant's knowledge of Novice class theory and regulations
   B. The applicant's knowledge of General class theory and regulations
   C. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 5 WPM
   D. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 13 WPM
&&
78
78. What is an Element 1(C) examination intended to prove?
   A. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 20 WPM
   B. The applicant's knowledge of Amateur Extra Class theory and regulations
   C. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 13 WPM
   D. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 5 WPM
&&
79
79. What is Examination Element 2?
   A. The 5-WPM amateur Morse code examination
   B. The 13-WPM amateur Morse code examination
   C. The written examination for the Novice class operator license
   D. The written examination for the Technician class operator license
&&
80
80. What is Examination Element 3(A)?
   A. The 5-WPM amateur Morse code examination
   B. The 13-WPM amateur Morse code examination
   C. The written examination for the Technician class operator license
   D. The written examination for the General class operator license
&&
81
81. What is Examination Element 3(B)?
   A. The 5-WPM amateur Morse code examination
   B. The 13-WPM amateur Morse code examination
   C. The written examination for the Technician class operator license
   D. The written examination for the General class operator license
&&
82
82. What is Examination Element 4(A)?
   A. The written examination for the Technician class operator license
   B. The 20-WPM amateur Morse code examination
   C. The written examination for the Advanced class operator license
   D. The written examination for the Amateur Extra Class operator license
&&
83
83. What is Examination Element 4(B)?
   A. The written examination for the Technician class operator license
   B. The 20-WPM amateur Morse code examination
   C. The written examination for the Advanced class operator license
   D. The written examination for the Amateur Extra Class operator license
&&
84
84. Who must prepare Examination Element 1(B)?
   A. Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners,
      or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
   B. Advanced class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners,
      or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
   C. The FCC
   D. The Field Operations Bureau
&&
86
85. Who must prepare Examination Element 1(C)?
   A. The FCC
   B. The Field Operations Bureau
   C. Advanced class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners,
      or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
   D. Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners,
      or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
&&
86
86. Who must prepare Examination Element 3(A)?
   A. Advanced or Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners,
      or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
   B. The FCC
   C. The Field Operations Bureau
   D. Advanced or General class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners,
      or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
&&
87
87. Who must prepare Examination Element 3(B)?
   A. Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners,
      or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
   B. The FCC
   C. The Field Operations Bureau
   D. Advanced or General class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners,
      or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
&&
88
88. Who must prepare Examination Element 4(A)?
   A. Advanced or Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners,
      or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
   B. The FCC
   C. The Field Operations Bureau
   D. Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners,
      or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
&&
89
89. Who must prepare Examination Element 4(B)?
   A. Advanced or Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners,
      or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
   B. The FCC
   C. The Field Operations Bureau
   D. Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners,
      or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
&&
90
90. What examination elements are required for an Amateur Extra Class
operator license?
   A. 1(C) and 4(B)
   B. 3(B), 4(A) and 4(B)
   C. 1(B), 2, 3(A), 4(A) and 4(B)
   D. 1(C), 2, 3(A), 3(B), 4(A) and 4(B)
&&
91
91. What examination elements are required for an Advanced class
operator license?
   A. 1(A), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A)
   B. 1(B), 3(A) and 3(B)
   C. 1(B) and 4(A)
   D. 1(B), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A)
&&
92
92. What examination elements are required for a General class
operator license?
   A. 1(B), 2, 3(A) and 3(B)
   B. 1(A), 2, 3(A) and 3(B)
   C. 1(A), 3(A) and 3(B)
   D. 1(B), 3(A) and 3(B)
&&
93
93. What examination elements are required for a Technician class
operator license?
   A. 1(A) and 2
   B. 1(A) and 3(A)
   C. 1(A), 2 and 3(A)
   D. 2 and 3(A)
&&
94
94. What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid
Novice class operator license?
   A. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A) and 2
   B. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B) and 3(A)
   C. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B) and 2
   D. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A) and 3(A)
&&
95
95. What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid
Technician class operator license issued after March 20, 1987?
   A. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A) and 2
   B. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 2 and 3(A)
   C. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 2 and 3(A)
   D. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 3(A) and 3(B)
&&
96
96. What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid
Technician class operator license issued before March 21, 1987?
   A. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 2 and 3(B)
   B. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 2, 3(A) and 3(B)
   C. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 2, 3(A) and 4(A)
   D. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 3(A) and 3(B)
&&
97
97. What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid
General class operator license?
   A. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 2, 3(A),
      3(B) and 4(A)
   B. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 3(A),
      3(B) and 4(A)
   C. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 2, 3(A),
      3(B) and 4(B)
   D. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 2, 3(A) and 3(B)
&&
98
98. What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid
Advanced class operator license?
   A. Credit for successful completion of Element 4(A)
   B. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B) and 4(A)
   C. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 2, 3(A),
      3(B) and 4(A)
   D. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(C), 3(A), 3(B),
      4(A) and 4(B)
&&
99
99. What examination credit, if any, may be given to an applicant who holds
a valid amateur operator license issued by another country?
   A. Credit for successful completion of any elements that may be
      identical to those required for U.S. licensees
   B. No credit
   C. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 1(B) and 1(C)
   D. Credit for successful completion of Elements 2, 3(A), 3(B),
      4(A) and 4(B)
&&
100
100. What examination credit, if any, may be given to an applicant who
holds a valid amateur operator license issued by any other United States
government agency than the FCC?
   A. No credit
   B. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 1(B) or 1(C)
   C. Credit for successful completion of Elements 4(A) and 4(B)
   D. Credit for successful completion of Element 1(C)
&&
101
101. What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds
a valid FCC commercial radiotelegraph license?
   A. No credit
   B. Credit for successful completion of element 1(B) only
   C. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A), 1(B) or 1(C)
   D. Credit for successful completion of element 1(A) only
&&
102
102. What examination credit must be given to the holder of a valid
Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination?
   A. Credit for previously completed written examination elements only
   B. Credit for the code speed associated with the previously completed
      telegraphy examination elements only
   C. Credit for previously completed written and telegraphy examination
      elements only
   D. Credit for previously completed commercial examination elements only
&&
103
103. Who determines where and when examinations for amateur operator
licenses are to be administered?
   A. The FCC
   B. The Section Manager
   C. The applicants
   D. The administering Volunteer Examiner Team
&&
104
104. Where must the examiners be and what must they be doing during
an examination?
   A. The examiners must be present and observing the candidate(s)
      throughout the entire examination
   B. The examiners must be absent to allow the candidate(s) to complete
      the entire examination in accordance with the traditional honor system
   C. The examiners must be present to observe the candidate(s) throughout
      the administration of telegraphy examination elements only
   D. The examiners must be present to observe the candidate(s) throughout
      the administration of written examination elements only
&&
105
105. Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision
during an examination?
   A. The VEC
   B. The FCC
   C. The administering Volunteer Examiners
   D. The candidates and the administering Volunteer Examiners
&&
106
106. What should an examiner do when a candidate fails to comply with the
examiner's instructions?
   A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply with the
      examiner's instructions will result in termination of the examination
   B. Immediately terminate the examination
   C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but refuse to issue
      a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination for any elements
      passed by fraudulent means
   D. Immediately terminate the examination and report the violation to
      federal law enforcement officials
&&
107
107. What must the candidate do at the completion of the examination?
   A. Complete a brief written evaluation of the examination session
   B. Return all test papers to the examiners
   C. Return all test papers to the examiners and wait for them to be
      graded before leaving the examination site
   D. Pay the registration fee
&&
108
108. When must the test papers be graded?
   A. Within 5 days of completion of an examination element
   B. Within 30 days of completion of an examination element
   C. Immediately upon completion of an examination element
   D. Within 10 days of completion of an examination element
&&
109
109. Who must grade the test papers?
   A. The ARRL
   B. The administering Volunteer Examiners
   C. The Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator
   D. The FCC
&&
110
110. How do the examiners inform a candidate who does not score a passing
grade?
   A. Give the percentage of the questions answered correctly and return
      the application to the candidate
   B. Give the percentage of the questions answered incorrectly and return
      the application to the candidate
   C. Tell the candidate that he or she failed and return the application
      to the candidate
   D. Show how the incorrect answers should have been answered and give
      a copy of the corrected answer sheet to the candidate
&&
111
111. What must the examiners do when the candidate scores a passing grade?
   A. Give the percentage of the questions answered correctly and return
      the application to the candidate
   B. Tell the candidate that he or she passed
   C. Issue the candidate an operator license
   D. Issue the candidate a Certificate of Successful Completion of
      Examination for the appropriate exam element(s)
&&
112
112. Within what time limit after administering an exam must the
examiners submit the applications and test papers from successful
candidates to the VEC?
   A. Within 10 days
   B. Within 15 days
   C. Within 30 days
   D. Within 90 days
&&
113
113. To whom do the examiners submit successful candidates' applications
and test papers?
   A. To the candidate
   B. To the coordinating VEC
   C. To the local radio club
   D. To the regional Section Manager
&&
114
114. When an applicant passes an examination to upgrade his or her operator
license, under what authority may he or she be the control operator of an
amateur station with the privileges of the higher operator class?
   A. That of the Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination
      issued by the VE Team that administered the examination
   B. That of the ARRL
   C. Applicants already licensed in the Amateur Radio Service may not
      use their newly earned privileges until they receive their
      permanent amateur station and operator licenses
   D. Applicants may only use their newly earned privileges during
      emergencies pending issuance of their permanent amateur station
      and operator licenses
&&
115
115. What is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination?
   A. A document printed by the FCC
   B. A document required for already licensed applicants operating with
      privileges of an amateur operator class higher than that of their
      permanent amateur operator licenses
   C. A document a candidate may use for an indefinite period of time
      to receive credit for successful completion of any written element
   D. A permanent Amateur Radio station and operator license certificate
      issued to a newly-upgraded licensee by the FCC within 90 days of
      the completion of the examination
&&
116
116. How long may a successful applicant operate a station under Section
97.35 with the rights and privileges of the higher operator class for
which the applicant has passed the appropriate examinations?
   A. 30 days or until issuance of the permanent operator and station
      license, whichever comes first
   B. 3 months or until issuance of the permanent operator and station
      license, whichever comes first
   C. 6 months or until issuance of the permanent operator and station
      license, whichever comes first
   D. 1 year or until issuance of the permanent operator and station
      license, whichever comes first
&&
117
117. How must the station call sign be amended when operating under the
temporary authority authorized by Section 97.35?
   A. The applicant must use an identifier code as a prefix to his or her
      present call sign, e.g., when using voice; "interim AE KA1MJP"
   B. The applicant must use an identifier code as a suffix to his or her
      present call sign, e.g., when using voice; "KA1MJP temporary AE"
   C. By adding after the call sign, when using voice, the phrase
      "operating temporary Technician, General, Advanced or Extra"
   D. By adding to the call sign, when using CW, the slant bar followed
      by the letters T, G, A or E
&&
118
118. What is an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
   A. A pass from west to east
   B. A pass from east to west
   C. A pass from south to north
   D. A pass from north to south
&&
119
119. What is a descending pass for an amateur satellite?
   A. A pass from north to south
   B. A pass from west to east
   C. A pass from east to west
   D. A pass from south to north
&&
120
120. What is the period of an amateur satellite?
   A. An orbital arc that extends from 60 degrees west longitude
      to 145 degrees west longitude
   B. The point on an orbit where satellite height is minimum
   C. The amount of time it takes for a satellite to complete one orbit
   D. The time it takes a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee
&&
121
121. What is Mode A in an amateur satellite?
   A. Operation through a 10-meter receiver on a satellite that
      retransmits on 2 meters
   B. The lowest frequency used in Phase 3 transponders
   C. The highest frequency used in Phase 3 translators
   D. Operation through a 2-meter receiver on a satellite that
      retransmits on 10 meters
&&
122
122. What is Mode B in an amateur satellite?
   A. Operation through a 10-meter receiver on a satellite that
      retransmits on 2 meters
   B. Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite that
      retransmits on 2 meters
   C. The beacon output
   D. A codestore device used to record messages
&&
123
123. What is Mode J in an amateur satellite?
   A. Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite that
      retransmits on 2 meters
   B. Operation through a 2-meter receiver on a satellite that retransmits
      on 70 centimeters
   C. Operation through a 2-meter receiver on a satellite that retransmits
      on 10 meters
   D. Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite that
      retransmits on 10 meters
&&
124
124. What is Mode L in an amateur satellite?
   A. Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite that
      retransmits on 10 meters
   B. Operation through a 23-centimeter receiver on a satellite that
      retransmits on 70 centimeters
   C. Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite that
      retransmits on 23 centimeters
   D. Operation through a 10-meter receiver on a satellite that
      retransmits on 70 centimeters
&&
125
125. What is a linear transponder?
   A. A repeater that passes only linear or CW signals
   B. A device that receives and retransmits signals of any mode in a
      certain passband
   C. An amplifier for SSB transmissions
   D. A device used to change FM to SSB
&&
126
126. What are the two basic types of linear transponders used in amateur
satellites?
   A. Inverting and non-inverting
   B. Geostationary and elliptical
   C. Phase 2 and Phase 3
   D. Amplitude modulated and frequency modulated
&&
127
127. Why does the downlink frequency appear to vary by several kHz during
a low-earth-orbit amateur satellite pass?
   A. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing,
      causing the Kepler effect
   B. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing,
      causing the Bernoulli effect
   C. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing,
      causing the Boyles' law effect
   D. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing,
      causing the Doppler effect
&&
128
128. Why does the received signal from a Phase III amateur satellite
exhibit a fairly rapid pulsed fading effect?
   A. Because the satellite is rotating
   B. Because of ionospheric absorption
   C. Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
   D. Because of the Doppler effect
&&
129
129. What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin
modulation and Faraday rotation?
   A. A nonpolarized antenna
   B. A circularly polarized antenna
   C. An isotropic antenna
   D. A log-periodic dipole array
&&
130
130. How often is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan television system?
   A. 30 times per second
   B. 60 times per second
   C. 90 times per second
   D. 120 times per second
&&
131
131. How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan television frame?
   A. 30
   B. 60
   C. 525
   D. 1050
&&
132
132. How is the interlace scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan
television system?
   A. By scanning the field from top to bottom
   B. By scanning the field from bottom to top
   C. By scanning even numbered lines in one field and odd numbered ones
      in the next
   D. By scanning from left to right in one field and right to left in
      the next
&&
133
133. What is blanking in a video signal?
   A. Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync-pulses
   B. Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to
      left and from bottom to top
   C. Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission
   D. Transmitting a black and white test pattern
&&
134
134. What is the standard video voltage level between the sync tip and
the whitest white at TV camera outputs and modulator inputs?
   A. 1 volt peak-to-peak
   B. 120 IEEE units
   C. 12 volts DC
   D. 5 volts RMS
&&
135
135. What is the bandwidth of a fast-scan television transmission?
   A. 3 kHz
   B. 10 kHz
   C. 25 kHz
   D. 6 MHz
&&
136
136. What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for black?
   A. 0%
   B. 12.5%
   C. 70%
   D. 100%
&&
137
137. What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for white?
   A. 0%
   B. 12.5%
   C. 70%
   D. 100%
&&
138
138. What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for blanking?
   A. 0%
   B. 12.5%
   C. 75%
   D. 100%
&&
139
139. What is the maximum separation between two stations communicating
by moonbounce?
   A. 500 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee
   B. 2,000 miles maximum, if the moon is at apogee
   C. 5,000 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee
   D. Any distance as long as the stations have a mutual lunar window
&&
140
140. What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?
   A. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
   B. A fluttery, rapid irregular fading
   C. A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises
   D. The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the
      transmitted signal
&&
141
141. What are the best days to schedule EME contacts?
   A. When the moon is at perigee
   B. When the moon is full
   C. When the moon is at apogee
   D. When the weather at both stations is clear
&&
142
142. What type of receiving system is required for EME communications?
   A. Equipment capable of reception on 14 MHz
   B. Equipment with very low dynamic range
   C. Equipment with very low gain
   D. Equipment with very low noise figures
&&
143
143. What type of transmitting system is required for EME communications?
   A. A transmitting system capable of operation on the 21 MHz band
   B. A transmitting system capable of producing a very high ERP
   C. A transmitting system using an unmodulated carrier
   D. A transmitting system with a high second harmonic output
&&
144
144. When the earth's atmosphere is struck by a meteor, a cylindrical
region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?
   A. The F1 layer
   B. The E layer
   C. The F2 layer
   D. The D layer
&&
145
145. Which range of frequencies is well suited for meteor-scatter
communications?
   A. 1.8 - 1.9 MHz
   B. 10 - 14 MHz
   C. 28 - 148 MHz
   D. 220 - 450 MHz
&&
146
146. What is transequatorial propagation?
   A. Propagation between two points at approximately the same distance
      north and south of the magnetic equator
   B. Propagation between two points on the magnetic equator
   C. Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the
      magnetic equator
   D. Propagation between any two stations at the same latitude
&&
147
147. What is the maximum range for signals using transequatorial
propagation?
   A. About 1,000 miles
   B. About 2,500 miles
   C. About 5,000 miles
   D. About 7,500 miles
&&
148
148. What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?
   A. Morning
   B. Noon
   C. Afternoon or early evening
   D. Trans-equatorial propagation only works at night
&&
149
149. If a beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away
from a station to receive the strongest signals, what type of propagation
is probably occurring?
   A. Transequatorial propagation
   B. Sporadic-E propagation
   C. Long-path propagation
   D. Auroral propagation
&&
150
150. What is the name for a type of propagation in which radio signals
travel along the terminator, which separates daylight from darkness?
   A. Transequatorial propagation
   B. Sporadic-E propagation
   C. Long-path propagation
   D. Gray-line propagation
&&
151
151. How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional time-domain
oscilloscope?
   A. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals while the
      spectrum analyzer is used to measure ionospheric reflection
   B. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in the
      frequency domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to display
      electrical signals in the time domain
   C. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in the time
      domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to display electrical
      signals in the frequency domain
   D. The oscilloscope is used for displaying audio frequencies and the
      spectrum analyzer is used for displaying radio frequencies
&&
152
152. What does the horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer display?
   A. Amplitude
   B. Voltage
   C. Resonance
   D. Frequency
&&
153
153. What does the vertical axis of a spectrum analyzer display?
   A. Amplitude
   B. Duration
   C. Frequency
   D. Time
&&
154
154. What test instrument can be used to display spurious signals
in the output of a radio transmitter?
   A. A spectrum analyzer
   B. A wattmeter
   C. A logic analyzer
   D. A time-domain reflectometer
&&
155
155. What test instrument is used to display intermodulation distortion
products from an SSB transmitter?
   A. A wattmeter
   B. A spectrum analyzer
   C. A logic analyzer
   D. A time-domain reflectometer
&&
156
156. What advantage does a logic probe have over a voltmeter for monitoring
logic states in a circuit?
   A. A logic probe has fewer leads to connect to a circuit than a voltmeter
   B. A logic probe can be used to test analog and digital circuits
   C. A logic probe can be powered by commercial AC lines
   D. A logic probe is smaller and shows a simplified readout
&&
157
157. What piece of test equipment can be used to directly indicate high
and low logic states?
   A. A galvanometer
   B. An electroscope
   C. A logic probe
   D. A Wheatstone bridge
&&
158
158. What is a logic probe used to indicate?
   A. A short-circuit fault in a digital-logic circuit
   B. An open-circuit failure in a digital-logic circuit
   C. A high-impedance ground loop
   D. High and low logic states in a digital-logic circuit
&&
159
159. What piece of test equipment besides an oscilloscope can be used
to indicate pulse conditions in a digital-logic circuit?
   A. A logic probe
   B. A galvanometer
   C. An electroscope
   D. A Wheatstone bridge
&&
160
160. What is one of the most significant problems you might encounter
when you try to receive
signals with a mobile station?
   A. Ignition noise
   B. Doppler shift
   C. Radar interference
   D. Mechanical vibrations
&&
161
161. What is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical noise
in a mobile station?
   A. Apply shielding and filtering where necessary
   B. Insulate all plane sheet metal surfaces from each other
   C. Apply antistatic spray liberally to all non-metallic surfaces
   D. Install filter capacitors in series with all DC wiring
&&
162
162. How can ferrite beads be used to suppress ignition noise?
   A. Install them in the resistive high voltage cable every 2 years
   B. Install them between the starter solenoid and the starter motor
   C. Install them in the primary and secondary ignition leads
   D. Install them in the antenna lead to the radio
&&
163
163. How can ensuring good electrical contact between connecting metal
surfaces in a vehicle reduce spark plug noise?
   A. It reduces the spark gap distance, causing a lower frequency spark
   B. It helps radiate the spark plug noise away from the vehicle
   C. It reduces static buildup on the vehicle body
   D. It encourages lower frequency electrical resonances in the vehicle
&&
164
164. How can alternator whine be minimized?
   A. By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the longest
      possible path
   B. By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the shortest
      possible path
   C. By installing a high pass filter in series with the radio's DC power
      lead to the vehicle's electrical system
   D. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead
&&
165
165. How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile
alternator be suppressed?
   A. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead
      and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead
   B. By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the longest
      possible path and by installing a blocking capacitor in series with
      the positive lead
   C. By installing a high pass filter in series with the radio's power
      lead to the vehicle's electrical system and by installing a low-pass
      filter in parallel with the field lead
   D. By connecting the radio power leads directly to the battery and by
      installing coaxial capacitors in the alternator leads
&&
166
166. What is a major cause of atmospheric static?
   A. Sunspots
   B. Thunderstorms
   C. Airplanes
   D. Meteor showers
&&
167
167. How can you determine if a line-noise interference problem is being
generated within your home?
   A. Check the power-line voltage with a time-domain reflectometer
   B. Observe the AC waveform on an oscilloscope
   C. Turn off the main circuit breaker and listen on a battery-operated
      radio
   D. Observe the power-line voltage on a spectrum analyzer
&&
168
168. What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction
finding?
   A. It has a bidirectional pattern broadside to the loop
   B. It is non-rotatable
   C. It receives equally well in all directions
   D. It is practical for use only on VHF bands
&&
169
169. What directional pattern is desirable for a direction-finding antenna?
   A. A non-cardioid pattern
   B. Good front-to-back and front-to-side ratios
   C. Good top-to-bottom and front-to-side ratios
   D. Shallow nulls
&&
170
170. What is the triangulation method of direction finding?
   A. Using the geometric angle of ground waves and sky waves emanating
      from the same source to locate the signal source
   B. A fixed receiving station uses three beam headings to plot the signal
      source on a map
   C. Beam headings from several receiving locations are used to plot the
      signal source on a map
   D. The use of three vertical antennas to indicate the location of the
      signal source
&&
171
171. Why is an RF attenuator desirable in a receiver used for direction
finding?
   A. It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal
   B. It eliminates the effects of isotropic radiation
   C. It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls
   D. It prevents receiver overload from extremely strong signals
&&
172
172. What is a sense antenna?
   A. A vertical antenna added to a loop antenna to produce a cardioid
      reception pattern
   B. A horizontal antenna added to a loop antenna to produce a cardioid
      reception pattern
   C. A vertical antenna added to an Adcock antenna to produce an
      omnidirectional reception pattern
   D. A horizontal antenna added to an Adcock antenna to produce a cardioid
      reception pattern
&&
173
173. What type of antenna is most useful for sky-wave reception in radio
direction finding?
   A. A log-periodic dipole array
   B. An isotropic antenna
   C. A circularly polarized antenna
   D. An Adcock antenna
&&
174
174. What is a loop antenna?
   A. A circularly polarized antenna
   B. A coil of wire used as an antenna in FM broadcast receivers
   C. A wire loop used in radio direction finding
   D. An antenna coupled to the feed line through an inductive loop
      of wire
&&
175
175. How can the output voltage of a loop antenna be increased?
   A. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
   B. By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop while reducing
      the area of the loop structure
   C. By reducing either the number of wire turns in the loop, or the
      area of the loop structure
   D. By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop, or the
      area of the loop structure
&&
176
176. Why is an antenna system with a cardioid pattern desirable for a
direction-finding system?
   A. The broad side responses of the cardioid pattern can be aimed at
      the desired station
   B. The deep null of the cardioid pattern can pinpoint the direction
      of the desired station
   C. The sharp peak response of the cardioid pattern can pinpoint
      the direction of the desired station
   D. The high radiation angle of the cardioid pattern is useful for
      short-distance direction finding
&&
177
177. What type of terrain can cause errors in direction finding?
   A. Homogeneous terrain
   B. Smooth grassy terrain
   C. Varied terrain
   D. Terrain with no buildings or mountains
&&
178
178. What is the photoconductive effect?
   A. The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
   B. The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction
   C. The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
   D. The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction
&&
179
179. What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it?
   A. The conductivity of the material increases
   B. The conductivity of the material decreases
   C. The conductivity of the material stays the same
   D. The conductivity of the material becomes temperature dependent
&&
180
180. What happens to the resistance of a photoconductive material when
light shines on it?
   A. It increases
   B. It becomes temperature dependent
   C. It stays the same
   D. It decreases
&&
181
181. What happens to the conductivity of a semiconductor junction when
it is illuminated?
   A. It stays the same
   B. It becomes temperature dependent
   C. It increases
   D. It decreases
&&
182
182. What is an optocoupler?
   A. A resistor and a capacitor
   B. A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
   C. An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
   D. An LED and a phototransistor
&&
183
183. What is an optoisolator?
   A. An LED and a phototransistor
   B. A P-N junction that develops an excess positive charge when
      exposed to light
   C. An LED and a capacitor
   D. An LED and a solar cell
&&
184
184. What is an optical shaft encoder?
   A. An array of optocouplers chopped by a stationary wheel
   B. An array of optocouplers whose light transmission path is controlled
      by a rotating wheel
   C. An array of optocouplers whose propagation velocity is controlled
      by a stationary wheel
   D. An array of optocouplers whose propagation velocity is controlled
      by a rotating wheel
&&
185
185. What does the photoconductive effect in crystalline solids produce
a noticeable change in?
   A. The capacitance of the solid
   B. The inductance of the solid
   C. The specific gravity of the solid
   D. The resistance of the solid
&&
186
186. What is the meaning of the term time constant of an RC circuit?
   A. The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to
      36.8% of the supply voltage
   B. The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to
      36.8% of the supply current
   C. The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to
      63.2% of the supply current
   D. The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to
      63.2% of the supply voltage
&&
187
187. What is the meaning of the term time constant of an RL circuit?
   A. The time required for the current in the circuit to build up to
      36.8% of the maximum value
   B. The time required for the voltage in the circuit to build up to
      63.2% of the maximum value
   C. The time required for the current in the circuit to build up to
      63.2% of the maximum value
   D. The time required for the voltage in the circuit to build up to
      36.8% of the maximum value
&&
188
188. What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC
circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage?
   A. An exponential rate of one
   B. One time constant
   C. One exponential period
   D. A time factor of one
&&
189
189. What is the term for the time required for the current in an RL
circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value?
   A. One time constant
   B. An exponential period of one
   C. A time factor of one
   D. One exponential rate
&&
190
190. What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in
an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial value of stored charge?
   A. One discharge period
   B. An exponential discharge rate of one
   C. A discharge factor of one
   D. One time constant
&&
191
191. What is meant by back EMF?
   A. A current equal to the applied EMF
   B. An opposing EMF equal to R times C (RC) percent of the applied EMF
   C. A current that opposes the applied EMF
   D. A voltage that opposes the applied EMF
&&
192
192. After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is charged
to what percentage of the supply voltage?
   A. 36.8%
   B. 63.2%
   C. 86.5%
   D. 95%
&&
193
193. After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is
discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage?
   A. 86.5%
   B. 63.2%
   C. 36.8%
   D. 13.5%
&&
194
194. What is the time constant of a circuit having a 100-microfarad
capacitor in series with a 470-kilohm resistor?
   A. 4700 seconds
   B. 470 seconds
   C. 47 seconds
   D. 0.47 seconds
&&
195
195. What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-microfarad
capacitor in parallel with a 1-megohm resistor?
   A. 220 seconds
   B. 22 seconds
   C. 2.2 seconds
   D. 0.22 seconds
&&
196
196. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad
capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in series?
   A. 470 seconds
   B. 47 seconds
   C. 4.7 seconds
   D. 0.47 seconds
&&
197
197. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad
capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in parallel?
   A. 470 seconds
   B. 47 seconds
   C. 4.7 seconds
   D. 0.47 seconds
&&
198
198. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad
capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in series?
   A. 55 seconds
   B. 110 seconds
   C. 220 seconds
   D. 440 seconds
&&
199
199. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad
capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel?
   A. 22 seconds
   B. 44 seconds
   C. 220 seconds
   D. 440 seconds
&&
200
200. What is the time constant of a circuit having one 100-microfarad
capacitor, one 220-microfarad capacitor, one 470- kilohm resistor and
one 1-megohm resistor all in series?
   A. 68.8 seconds
   B. 101.1 seconds
   C. 220.0 seconds
   D. 470.0 seconds
&&
201
201. What is the time constant of a circuit having a 470-microfarad
capacitor and a 1-megohm resistor in parallel?
   A. 0.47 seconds
   B. 47 seconds
   C. 220 seconds
   D. 470 seconds
&&
202
202. What is the time constant of a circuit having a 470-microfarad
capacitor in series with a 470-kilohm resistor?
   A. 221 seconds
   B. 221000 seconds
   C. 470 seconds
   D. 470000 seconds
&&
203
203. What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-microfarad
capacitor in series with a 470-kilohm resistor?
   A. 103 seconds
   B. 220 seconds
   C. 470 seconds
   D. 470000 seconds
&&
204
204. How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease
to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor
is connected across it?
   A. 12.64 seconds
   B. 0.02 seconds
   C. 1 second
   D. 7.98 seconds
&&
205
205. How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease
to 2.71 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor
is connected across it?
   A. 0.04 seconds
   B. 0.02 seconds
   C. 7.36 seconds
   D. 12.64 seconds
&&
206
206. How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease
to 1 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is
connected across it?
   A. 0.01 seconds
   B. 0.02 seconds
   C. 0.04 seconds
   D. 0.06 seconds
&&
207
207. How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease
to 0.37 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor
is connected across it?
   A. 0.08 seconds
   B. 0.6 seconds
   C. 0.4 seconds
   D. 0.2 seconds
&&
208
208. How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease
to 0.13 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor
is connected across it?
   A. 0.06 seconds
   B. 0.08 seconds
   C. 0.1 seconds
   D. 1.2 seconds
&&
209
209. How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease
to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is
connected across it?
   A. 80 seconds
   B. 294 seconds
   C. 368 seconds
   D. 450 seconds
&&
210
210. How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease
to 108 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is
connected across it?
   A. 225 seconds
   B. 294 seconds
   C. 450 seconds
   D. 900 seconds
&&
211
211. How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease
to 39.9 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is
connected across it?
   A. 1350 seconds
   B. 900 seconds
   C. 450 seconds
   D. 225 seconds
&&
212
212. How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease
to 40.2 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is
connected across it?
   A. Approximately 225 seconds
   B. Approximately 450 seconds
   C. Approximately 900 seconds
   D. Approximately 1350 seconds
&&
213
213. How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease
to 14.8 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is
connected across it?
   A. Approximately 900 seconds
   B. Approximately 1350 seconds
   C. Approximately 1804 seconds
   D. Approximately 2000 seconds
&&
214
214. What is a Smith Chart?
   A. A graph for calculating impedance along transmission lines
   B. A graph for calculating great circle bearings
   C. A graph for calculating antenna height
   D. A graph for calculating radiation patterns
&&
215
215. What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith Chart?
   A. Voltage and current circles
   B. Resistance and reactance circles
   C. Voltage and current lines
   D. Resistance and reactance lines
&&
216
216. What type of calculations can be performed using a Smith Chart?
   A. Beam headings and radiation patterns
   B. Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
   C. Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
   D. Circuit gain calculations
&&
217
217. What are the two families of circles that make up a Smith Chart?
   A. Resistance and voltage
   B. Reactance and voltage
   C. Resistance and reactance
   D. Voltage and impedance
&&
218
218. What is the only straight line on a blank Smith Chart?
   A. The reactance axis
   B. The resistance axis
   C. The voltage axis
   D. The current axis
&&
219
219. What is the process of normalizing with regard to a Smith Chart?
   A. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
   B. Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
   C. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the prime center
   D. Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
&&
220
220. What are the curved lines on a Smith Chart?
   A. Portions of current circles
   B. Portions of voltage circles
   C. Portions of resistance circles
   D. Portions of reactance circles
&&
221
221. What is the third family of circles which are added to a Smith Chart
during the process of solving problems?
   A. Coaxial length circles
   B. Antenna length circles
   C. Standing wave ratio circles
   D. Radiation pattern circles
&&
222
222. How are the wavelength scales on a Smith Chart calibrated?
   A. In portions of transmission line electrical frequency
   B. In portions of transmission line electrical wavelength
   C. In portions of antenna electrical wavelength
   D. In portions of antenna electrical frequency
&&
223
223. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.1-microhenry
inductor in series with a 20-ohm resistor, at 30 MHz?  (Specify your
answer in rectangular coordinates.)
   A. 20 + j19
   B. 20 - j19
   C. 19 + j20
   D. 19 - j20
&&
224
224. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.1-microhenry
inductor in series with a 30-ohm resistor, at 5 MHz?  (Specify your
answer in rectangular coordinates.)
   A. 30 - j3
   B. 30 + j3
   C. 3 + j30
   D. 3 - j30
&&
225
225. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 10-microhenry
inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor, at 500 MHz?  (Specify your
answer in rectangular coordinates.)
   A. 40 + j31400
   B. 40 - j31400
   C. 31400 + j40
   D. 31400 - j40
&&
226
226. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-picofarad
capacitor in parallel with a 4000-ohm resistor, at 500 kHz?  (Specify
your answer in polar coordinates.)
   A. 2490 ohms,  / 51.5 degrees
   B. 4000 ohms,  / 38.5 degrees
   C. 5112 ohms,  / -38.5 degrees
   D. 2490 ohms,  / -51.5 degrees
&&
227
227. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.001-microfarad
capacitor in series with a 400-ohm resistor, at 500 kHz?  (Specify your
answer in rectangular coordinates.)
   A. 400 - j318
   B. 318 - j400
   C. 400 + j318
   D. 318 + j400
&&
228
228. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm- reactance
inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?  (Specify your answer in
polar coordinates.)
   A. 121 ohms,  / 35 degrees
   B. 141 ohms,  / 45 degrees
   C. 161 ohms,  / 55 degrees
   D. 181 ohms,  / 65 degrees
&&
229
229. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm- reactance
inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor all
connected in series? (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.)
   A. 100 ohms,  / 90 degrees
   B.  10 ohms,  / 0 degrees
   C. 100 ohms,  / 0 degrees
   D.  10 ohms,  / 100 degrees
&&
230
230. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-ohm- reactance
capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor? (Specify your answer in
polar coordinates.)
   A. 240 ohms,  / 36.9 degrees
   B. 240 ohms,  / -36.9 degrees
   C. 500 ohms,  / 53.1 degrees
   D. 500 ohms,  / -53.1 degrees
&&
231
231. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm- reactance
capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400- ohm resistor, all
connected in series? (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.)
   A. 500 ohms,  / 37 degrees
   B. 400 ohms,  / 27 degrees
   C. 300 ohms,  / 17 degrees
   D. 200 ohms,  / 10 degrees
&&
232
232. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-ohm- reactance
inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor? (Specify your answer in
polar coordinates.)
   A. 240 ohms,  / 36.9 degrees
   B. 240 ohms,  / -36.9 degrees
   C. 500 ohms,  / 53.1 degrees
   D. 500 ohms,  / -53.1 degrees
&&
233
233. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 1.0-millihenry
inductor in series with a 200-ohm resistor, at 30 kHz?  (Specify your
answer in rectangular coordinates.)
   A. 200 - j188
   B. 200 + j188
   C. 188 + j200
   D. 188 - j200
&&
234
234. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 10-millihenry
inductor in series with a 600-ohm resistor, at 10 kHz?  (Specify your
answer in rectangular coordinates.)
   A. 628 + j600
   B. 628 - j600
   C. 600 + j628
   D. 600 - j628
&&
235
235. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.01-microfarad
capacitor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor, at 50 kHz?  (Specify your
answer in rectangular coordinates.)
   A. 150 - j159
   B. 150 + j159
   C. 159 + j150
   D. 159 - j150
&&
236
236. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.1-microfarad
capacitor in series with a 40-ohm resistor, at 50 kHz?  (Specify your
answer in rectangular coordinates.)
   A. 40 + j32
   B. 40 - j32
   C. 32 - j40
   D. 32 + j40
&&
237
237. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 1.0-microfarad
capacitor in parallel with a 30-ohm resistor, at 5 MHz?  (Specify your
answer in rectangular coordinates.)
   A. 0.000034 + j.032
   B. 0.032 + j.000034
   C. 0.000034 - j.032
   D. 0.032 - j.000034
&&
238
238. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm- reactance
capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor? (Specify your answer in
polar coordinates.)
   A. 121 ohms,  / -25 degrees
   B. 141 ohms,  / -45 degrees
   C. 161 ohms,  / -65 degrees
   D. 191 ohms,  / -85 degrees
&&
239
239. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm- reactance
capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor? (Specify your answer in
polar coordinates.)
   A. 31 ohms,  / -15 degrees
   B. 51 ohms,  / -25 degrees
   C. 71 ohms,  / -45 degrees
   D. 91 ohms,  / -65 degrees
&&
240
240. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm- reactance
inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?  (Specify your answer in
polar coordinates.)
   A. 400 ohms,  / 27 degrees
   B. 500 ohms,  / 37 degrees
   C. 600 ohms,  / 47 degrees
   D. 700 ohms,  / 57 degrees
&&
241
241. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm- reactance
inductor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor? (Specify your answer in
polar coordinates.)
   A.  71 ohms,  / 45 degrees
   B.  81 ohms,  / 55 degrees
   C.  91 ohms,  / 65 degrees
   D. 100 ohms,  / 75 degrees
&&
242
242. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm- reactance
capacitor in series with a 400-ohm resistor? (Specify your answer in
polar coordinates.)
   A. 200 ohms,  / -10 degrees
   B. 300 ohms,  / -17 degrees
   C. 400 ohms,  / -27 degrees
   D. 500 ohms,  / -37 degrees
&&
243
243. What is an enhancement-mode FET?
   A. An FET with a channel that blocks voltage through the gate
   B. An FET with a channel that allows a current when the gate voltage
      is zero
   C. An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate
   D. An FET without a channel; no current occurs with zero gate voltage
&&
244
244. What is a depletion-mode FET?
   A. An FET that has a channel with no gate voltage applied; a current
      flows with zero gate voltage
   B. An FET that has a channel that blocks current when the gate voltage
      is zero
   C. An FET without a channel; no current flows with zero gate voltage
   D. An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate
&&
245
245. What is the schematic symbol for an N-channel MOSFET?

                    I________ D                      I________ D
                   II                               II
   Is it A:        II<--I        or is it D:        II---I
            G _____II___I____ S              G _____II___V____ S
                    I                                I

&&
246
246. What is the schematic symbol for a P-channel MOSFET?

                    I_______ D                      I_______ D
                   II                              II
   Is it B:        II-->I       or is it C:        II<--I
            G _____II___I___ S              G _____II___I___ S
                    I                               I

&&
247
247. What is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

                    I________                        I________
             ______II                         ______II
   Is it B:         I-->I        or is it C:         I---I
             ______II___I____                 ______II___V____
                    I                                I

&&
248
248. What is the schematic symbol for a P-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

                    I________                        I________
             ______II                         ______II
   Is it A:         I<--I        or is it D:         I-->I
             ______II___I____                 ______II___I____
                    I                                I

&&
249
249. Why do many MOSFET devices have built-in gate-protective Zener diodes?
   A. The gate-protective Zener diode provides a voltage reference to
      provide the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
   B. The gate-protective Zener diode protects the substrate from
      excessive voltages
   C. The gate-protective Zener diode keeps the gate voltage within
      specifications to prevent the device from overheating
   D. The gate-protective Zener diode prevents the gate insulation from
      being punctured by small static charges or excessive voltages
&&
250
250. What do the initials CMOS stand for?
   A. Common mode oscillating system
   B. Complementary mica-oxide silicon
   C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor
   D. Complementary metal-oxide substrate
&&
251
251. Why are special precautions necessary in handling FET and CMOS devices?
   A. They are susceptible to damage from static charges
   B. They have fragile leads that may break off
   C. They have micro-welded semiconductor junctions that are susceptible
      to breakage
   D. They are light sensitive
&&
252
252. What is the schematic symbol for an N-channel junction FET?

                      I------ D                          I------ D
   Is is A:  G  ----->I           or is it D:  G  ----<--I
                      I------ S                          I------ S

&&
253
253. How does the input impedance of a field-effect transistor compare
with that of a bipolar transistor?
   A. One cannot compare input impedance without first knowing the
      supply voltage
   B. An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high
      input impedance
   C. The input impedance of FETs and bipolar transistors is the same
   D. An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low
      input impedance
&&
254
254. What are the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?
   A. Gate 1, gate 2, drain
   B. Emitter, base, collector
   C. Emitter, base 1, base 2
   D. Gate, drain, source
&&
255
255. What is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

                     I------ D                        I------ D
   Is it B:  G ---<--I           or it it C:  G ----->I
                     I------ S                        I------ S

&&
256
256. What are the two basic types of junction field-effect transistors?
   A. N-channel and P-channel
   B. High power and low power
   C. MOSFET and GaAsFET
   D. Silicon FET and germanium FET
&&
257
257. What is an operational amplifier?
   A. A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier whose
      characteristics are determined by components external to
      the amplifier unit
   B. A high-gain, direct-coupled audio amplifier whose characteristics
      are determined by components external to the amplifier unit
   C. An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency
      modulated amateur signals to the legal limit
   D. A program subroutine that calculates the gain of an RF amplifier
&&
258
258. What is the schematic symbol for an operational amplifier?
   A.
   B.
   C.
   D.
&&
259
259. What would be the characteristics of the ideal op-amp?
   A. Zero input impedance, infinite output impedance, infinite gain,
      flat frequency response
   B. Infinite input impedance, zero output impedance, infinite gain,
      flat frequency response
   C. Zero input impedance, zero output impedance, infinite gain,
      flat frequency response
   D. Infinite input impedance, infinite output impedance, infinite gain,
      flat frequency response
&&
260
260. What determines the gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit?
   A. The external feedback network
   B. The collector-to-base capacitance of the PNP stage
   C. The power supply voltage
   D. The PNP collector load
&&
261
261. What is meant by the term op-amp offset voltage?
   A. The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
   B. The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the
      input voltage required in the following stage
   C. The potential between the amplifier-input terminals of the op-amp
      in a closed-loop condition
   D. The potential between the amplifier-input terminals of the op-amp
      in an open-loop condition
&&
262
262. What is the input impedance of a theoretically ideal op-amp?
   A. 100 ohms
   B. 1000 ohms
   C. Very low
   D. Very high
&&
263
263. What is the output impedance of a theoretically ideal op-amp?
   A. Very low
   B. Very high
   C. 100 ohms
   D. 1000 ohms
&&
264
264. What is a phase-locked loop circuit?
   A. An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance
      modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator
   B. An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator
   C. An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier
      with a differential input
   D. An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass
      filter and voltage-controlled oscillator
&&
265
265. What functions are performed by a phase-locked loop?
   A. Wideband AF and RF power amplification
   B. Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
   C. Photovolatic conversion, optical coupling
   D. Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation
&&
266
266. A circuit compares the output from a voltage-controlled oscillator
and a frequency standard.  The difference between the two frequencies
produces an error voltage that changes the voltage-controlled oscillator
frequency.  What is the name of the circuit?
   A. A doubly balanced mixer
   B. A phase-locked loop
   C. A differential voltage amplifier
   D. A variable frequency oscillator
&&
267
267. What do the initials TTL stand for?
   A. Resistor-transistor logic
   B. Transistor-transistor logic
   C. Diode-transistor logic
   D. Emitter-coupled logic
&&
268
268. What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated
circuits?
   A. 12.00 volts
   B. 50.00 volts
   C. 5.00 volts
   D. 13.60 volts
&&
269
269. What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are
left open?
   A. A high logic state
   B. A low logic state
   C. The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high
      or low logic states
   D. Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored
&&
270
270. What level of input voltage is high in a TTL device operating with
a 5-volt power supply?
   A. 2.0 to 5.5 volts
   B. 1.5 to 3.0 volts
   C. 1.0 to 1.5 volts
   D. -5.0 to -2.0 volts
&&
271
271. What level of input voltage is low in a TTL device operating with
a 5-volt power supply?
   A. -2.0 to -5.5 volts
   B. 2.0 to 5.5 volts
   C. -0.6 to 0.8 volts
   D. -0.8 to 0.4 volts
&&
272
272. Why do circuits containing TTL devices have several bypass capacitors
per printed circuit board?
   A. To prevent RFI to receivers
   B. To keep the switching noise within the circuit, thus eliminating RFI
   C. To filter out switching harmonics
   D. To prevent switching transients from appearing on the supply line
&&
273
273. What is a CMOS IC?
   A. A chip with only P-channel transistors
   B. A chip with P-channel and N-channel transistors
   C. A chip with only N-channel transistors
   D. A chip with only bipolar transistors
&&
274
274. What is one major advantage of CMOS over other devices?
   A. Small size
   B. Low current consumption
   C. Low cost
   D. Ease of circuit design
&&
275
275. Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise
on the input signal or power supply?
   A. Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design
   B. The input switching threshold is about two times the power
      supply voltage
   C. The input switching threshold is about one-half the power
      supply voltage
   D. Input signals are stronger
&&
276
276. What is the name for a vacuum tube that is commonly found in
television cameras used for amateur television?
   A. A traveling-wave tube
   B. A klystron tube
   C. A vidicon tube
   D. A cathode-ray tube
&&
277
277. How is the electron beam deflected in a vidicon?
   A. By varying the beam voltage
   B. By varying the bias voltage on the beam forming grids inside
      the tube
   C. By varying the beam current
   D. By varying electromagnetic fields
&&
278
278. What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waves are
to be displayed on the screen?
   A. Electromagnetic
   B. Tubular
   C. Radar
   D. Electrostatic
&&
279
279. What is a flip-flop circuit?
   A. A binary sequential logic element with one stable state
   B. A binary sequential logic element with eight stable states
   C. A binary sequential logic element with four stable states
   D. A binary sequential logic element with two stable states
&&
280
280. How many bits of information can be stored in a single flip-flop
circuit?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4
&&
281
281. What is a bistable multivibrator circuit?
   A. An "AND" gate
   B. An "OR" gate
   C. A flip-flop
   D. A clock
&&
282
282. How many output changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses
applied to the input of a bistable T flip-flop circuit?
   A. No output level changes
   B. One output level change
   C. Two output level changes
   D. Four output level changes
&&
283
283. The frequency of an AC signal can be divided electronically by
what type of digital circuit?
   A. A free-running multivibrator
   B. An OR gate
   C. A bistable multivibrator
   D. An astable multivibrator
&&
284
284. What type of digital IC is also known as a latch?
   A. A decade counter
   B. An OR gate
   C. A flip-flop
   D. An op-amp
&&
285
285. How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 4
   D. 8
&&
286
286. What is an astable multivibrator?
   A. A circuit that alternates between two stable states
   B. A circuit that alternates between a stable state and
      an unstable state
   C. A circuit set to block either a 0 pulse or a 1 pulse
      and pass the other
   D. A circuit that alternates between two unstable states
&&
287
287. What is a monostable multivibrator?
   A. A circuit that can be switched momentarily to the opposite binary
      state and then returns after a set time to its original state
   B. A "clock" circuit that produces a continuous square wave
      oscillating between 1 and 0
   C. A circuit designed to store one bit of data in either the
      0 or the 1 configuration
   D. A circuit that maintains a constant output voltage, regardless
      of variations in the input voltage
&&
288
288. What is an AND gate?
   A. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output only if all
      inputs are logic "1"
   B. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output only if all
      inputs are logic "1"
   C. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if only one
      input is a logic "1"
   D. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if all
      inputs are logic "0"
&&
289
289. What is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?
   A.
   B.
   C.
   D.
&&
290
290. What is a NAND gate?
   A. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output only when all
      inputs are logic "0"
   B. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output only when all
      inputs are logic "1"
   C. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not
      all of its inputs are logic "1"
   D. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output only when all
      inputs are logic "1"
&&
291
291. What is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
   A.
   B.
   C.
   D.
&&
292
292. What is an OR gate?
   A. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if any input
      is logic "1"
   B. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if any input
      is logic "1"
   C. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs
      are logic "1"
   D. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs
      are logic "0"
&&
293
293. What is the schematic symbol for an OR gate?
   A.
   B.
   C.
   D.
&&
294
294. What is a NOR gate?
   A. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output only if all
      inputs are logic "0"
   B. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output only if all
      inputs are logic "1"
   C. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if any or all
      inputs are logic "1"
   D. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if some but not
      all of its inputs are logic "1"
&&
295
295. What is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
   A.
   B.
   C.
   D.
&&
296
296. What is a NOT gate?
   A. A circuit that produces a logic "O" at its output when the input
      is logic "1" and vice versa
   B. A circuit that does not allow data transmission when its input
      is high
   C. A circuit that allows data transmission only when its input is high
   D. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output when the input
      is logic "1" and vice versa
&&
297
297. What is the schematic symbol for a NOT gate?
   A.
   B.
   C.
   D.
&&
298
298. What is a truth table?
   A. A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states
      of an op-amp
   B. A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output
      is true
   C. A list of input combinations and their corresponding outputs that
      characterizes a digital device's function
   D. A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of
      an op-amp
&&
299
299. In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent
a logic 1?
   A. A low level
   B. A positive-transition level
   C. A negative-transition level
   D. A high level
&&
300
300. In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent
a logic 0?
   A. A low level
   B. A positive-transition level
   C. A negative-transition level
   D. A high level
&&
301
301. In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent
a logic 1?
   A. A low level
   B. A positive-transition level
   C. A negative-transition level
   D. A high level
&&
302
302. In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent
a logic 0?
   A. A low level
   B. A positive-transition level
   C. A negative-transition level
   D. A high level
&&
303
303. What is a crystal-controlled marker generator?
   A. A low-stability oscillator that "sweeps" through a band
      of frequencies
   B. An oscillator often used in aircraft to determine the craft's
      location relative to the inner and outer markers at airports
   C. A high-stability oscillator whose output frequency and amplitude
      can be varied over a wide range
   D. A high-stability oscillator that generates a series of reference
      signals at known frequency intervals
&&
304
304. What additional circuitry is required in a 100-kHz crystal-controlled
marker generator to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?
   A. An emitter-follower
   B. Two frequency multipliers
   C. Two flip-flops
   D. A voltage divider
&&
305
305. What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?
   A. It converts the output of a JK flip-flop to that of an RS flip-flop
   B. It multiplies an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can display
      the operating frequency
   C. It prevents oscillation in a low frequency counter circuit
   D. It divides an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can display the
      operating frequency
&&
306
306. What does the accuracy of a frequency counter depend on?
   A. The internal crystal reference
   B. A voltage-regulated power supply with an unvarying output
   C. Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
   D. Proper balancing of the power-supply diodes
&&
307
307. How many states does a decade counter digital IC have?
   A. 6
   B. 10
   C. 15
   D. 20
&&
308
308. What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?
   A. Decode a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
   B. Produce one output pulse for every ten input pulses
   C. Produce ten output pulses for every input pulse
   D. Add two decimal numbers
&&
309
309. What are the advantages of using an op-amp instead of LC elements
in an audio filter?
   A. Op-amps are more rugged and can withstand more abuse than can
      LC elements
   B. Op-amps are fixed at one frequency
   C. Op-amps are available in more styles and types than are LC elements
   D. Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss
&&
310
310. What determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp
RC active filter?
   A. Values of capacitances and resistances built into the op-amp
   B. Values of capacitances and resistances external to the op-amp
   C. Voltage and frequency of DC input to the op-amp power supply
   D. Regulated DC voltage output from the op-amp power supply
&&
311
311. What are the principle uses of an op-amp RC active filter in
amateur circuitry?
   A. Op-amp circuits are used as high-pass filters to block RFI at the
      input to receivers
   B. Op-amp circuits are used as low-pass filters between transmitters
      and transmission lines
   C. Op-amp circuits are used as filters for smoothing power-supply
      output
   D. Op-amp circuits are used as audio filters for receivers
&&
312
312. What type of capacitors should be used in an op-amp RC active filter
circuit?
   A. Electrolytic
   B. Disc ceramic
   C. Polystyrene
   D. Paper dielectric
&&
313
313. How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in
a multisection op-amp RC audio filter circuit?
   A. Restrict both gain and Q
   B. Restrict gain, but increase Q
   C. Restrict Q, but increase gain
   D. Increase both gain and Q
&&
314
314. Where should an op-amp RC active audio filter be placed in
an amateur receiver?
   A. In the IF strip, immediately before the detector
   B. In the audio circuitry immediately before the speaker or phone jack
   C. Between the balanced modulator and frequency multiplier
   D. In the low-level audio stages
&&
315
315. What parameter must be selected when designing an audio filter
using an op-amp?
   A. Bandpass characteristics
   B. Desired current gain
   C. Temperature coefficient
   D. Output-offset overshoot
&&
316
316. What two factors determine the sensitivity of a receiver?
   A. Dynamic range and third-order intercept
   B. Cost and availability
   C. Intermodulation distortion and dynamic range
   D. Bandwidth and noise figure
&&
317
317. What is the limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications
receiver?
   A. The noise floor of the receiver
   B. The power-supply output ripple
   C. The two-tone intermodulation distortion
   D. The input impedance to the detector
&&
318
318. What is the theoretical minimum noise floor of a receiver with
a 400-Hertz bandwidth?
   A. -141 dBm
   B. -148 dBm
   C. -174 dBm
   D. -180 dBm
&&
319
319. How can selectivity be achieved in the front-end circuitry of
a communications receiver?
   A. By using an audio filter
   B. By using a preselector
   C. By using an additional RF amplifier stage
   D. By using an additional IF amplifier stage
&&
320
320. A receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum
for what type of amateur signals?
   A. CW
   B. SSB voice
   C. Double-sideband AM voice
   D. FSK RTTY
&&
321
321. What occurs during A1A reception if too narrow a filter bandwidth
is used in the IF stage of a receiver?
   A. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
   B. Output-offset overshoot
   C. Cross-modulation distortion
   D. Filter ringing
&&
322
322. What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of
an amateur emission F1B receiver?
   A. 100 Hz
   B. 300 Hz
   C. 6000 Hz
   D. 2400 Hz
&&
323
323. A receiver selectivity of 10 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum
for what type of amateur signals?
   A. SSB voice
   B. Double-sideband AM
   C. CW
   D. FSK RTTY
&&
324
324. What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of
an emission J3E receiver?
   A. 1 kHz
   B. 2.4 kHz
   C. 4.2 kHz
   D. 4.8 kHz
&&
325
325. What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth
in the IF section of a receiver?
   A. Output-offset overshoot
   B. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
   C. Thermal-noise distortion
   D. Filter ringing
&&
326
326. How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section compare
with the bandwidth of a received signal?
   A. Filter bandwidth should be slightly greater than the
      received-signal bandwidth
   B. Filter bandwidth should be approximately half the
      received-signal bandwidth
   C. Filter bandwidth should be approximately two times the
      received-signal bandwidth
   D. Filter bandwidth should be approximately four times the
      received-signal bandwidth
&&
327
327. What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of
an emission F3E receiver?
   A. 1 kHz
   B. 2.4 kHz
   C. 4.2 kHz
   D. 15 kHz
&&
328
328. How can selectivity be achieved in the IF circuitry of a
communications receiver?
   A. Incorporate a means of varying the supply voltage to the local
      oscillator circuitry
   B. Replace the standard JFET mixer with a bipolar transistor followed
      by a capacitor of the proper value
   C. Remove AGC action from the IF stage and confine it to the audio
      stage only
   D. Incorporate a high-Q filter
&&
329
329. What is meant by the dynamic range of a communications receiver?
   A. The number of kHz between the lowest and the highest frequency to
      which the receiver can be tuned
   B. The maximum possible undistorted audio output of the receiver,
      referenced to one milliwatt
   C. The ratio between the minimum discernible signal and the largest
      tolerable signal without causing audible distortion products
   D. The difference between the lowest-frequency signal and the
      highest-frequency signal detectable without moving the tuning knob
&&
330
330. What is the term for the ratio between the largest tolerable receiver
input signal and the minimum discernible signal?
   A. Intermodulation distortion
   B. Noise floor
   C. Noise figure
   D. Dynamic range
&&
331
331. What type of problems are caused by poor dynamic range in a
communications receiver?
   A. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from
      strong adjacent signals
   B. Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning, and loss of
      ability to recover the opposite sideband, should it be transmitted
   C. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power
      to operate the speaker
   D. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the
      strongest received signals
&&
332
332. The ability of a communications receiver to perform well in the
presence of strong signals outside the amateur band of interest is
indicated by what parameter?
   A. Noise figure
   B. Blocking dynamic range
   C. Signal-to-noise ratio
   D. Audio output
&&
333
333. What is meant by the term noise figure of a communications receiver?
   A. The level of noise entering the receiver from the antenna
   B. The relative strength of a received signal 3 kHz removed from the
      carrier frequency
   C. The level of noise generated in the front end and succeeding stages
      of a receiver
   D. The ability of a receiver to reject unwanted signals at frequencies
      close to the desired one
&&
334
334. Which stage of a receiver primarily establishes its noise figure?
   A. The audio stage
   B. The IF strip
   C. The RF stage
   D. The local oscillator
&&
335
335. What is an inverting op-amp circuit?
   A. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input
      and output signals are 180 degrees out of phase
   B. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input
      and output signals are in phase
   C. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input
      and output signals are 90 degrees out of phase
   D. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input
      impedance is held at zero, while the output impedance is high
&&
336
336. What is a noninverting op-amp circuit?
   A. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input
      and output signals are 180 degrees out of phase
   B. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input
      and output signals are in phase
   C. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input
      and output signals are 90 degrees out of phase
   D. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input
      impedance is held at zero while the output impedance is high
&&
337
337. What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure 4BG-5
when R1 is 1000 ohms and Rf is 100 kilohms?
   A. 0.1
   B. 1
   C. 10
   D. 100
&&
338
338. What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure 4BG-5
when R1 is 1800 ohms and Rf is 68 kilohms?
   A. 1
   B. 0.03
   C. 38
   D. 76
&&
339
339. What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure 4BG-5
when R1 is 3300 ohms and Rf is 47 kilohms?
   A. 28
   B. 14
   C. 7
   D. 0.07
&&
340
340. What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure 4BG-5
when R1 is 10 ohms and Rf is 47 kilohms?
   A. 0.00021
   B. 9400
   C. 4700
   D. 2350
&&
341
341. How does the gain of a theoretically ideal operational amplifier vary
with frequency?
   A. The gain increases linearly with increasing frequency
   B. The gain decreases linearly with increasing frequency
   C. The gain decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
   D. The gain does not vary with frequency
&&
342
342. What determines the input impedance in a FET common-source amplifier?
   A. The input impedance is essentially determined by the resistance
      between the drain and substrate
   B. The input impedance is essentially determined by the resistance
      between the source and drain
   C. The input impedance is essentially determined by the gate biasing
      network
   D. The input impedance is essentially determined by the resistance
      between the source and substrate
&&
343
343. What determines the output impedance in a FET common-source amplifier?
   A. The output impedance is essentially determined by the drain
      resistor
   B. The output impedance is essentially determined by the input
      impedance of the FET
   C. The output impedance is essentially determined by the drain-supply
      voltage
   D. The output impedance is essentially determined by the gate supply
      voltage
&&
344
344. What frequency range will be tuned by the circuit in Figure 4BG-7
when L is 10 microhenrys, Cf is 156 picofarads, and Cv is 50 picofarads
maximum and 2 picofarads minimum?
   A. 3508 through 4004 kHz
   B. 6998 through 7360 kHz
   C. 13.396 through 14.402 MHz
   D. 49.998 through 54.101 MHz
&&
345
345. What frequency range will be tuned by the circuit in Figure 4BG-7
when L is 30 microhenrys, Cf is 200 picofarads, and Cv is 80 picofarads
maximum and 10 picofarads minimum?
   A. 1737 through 2005 kHz
   B. 3507 through 4004 kHz
   C. 7002 through 7354 kHz
   D. 14.990 through 15.020 MHz
&&
346
346. What is the purpose of a bypass capacitor?
   A. It increases the resonant frequency of the circuit
   B. It removes direct current from the circuit by shunting DC to ground
   C. It removes alternating current by providing a low impedance path
      to ground
   D. It acts as a voltage divider
&&
347
347. What is the purpose of a coupling capacitor?
   A. It blocks direct current and passes alternating current
   B. It blocks alternating current and passes direct current
   C. It increases the resonant frequency of the circuit
   D. It decreases the resonant frequency of the circuit
&&
348
348. In a pulse-width modulation system, what parameter does the
modulating signal vary?
   A. Pulse duration
   B. Pulse frequency
   C. Pulse amplitude
   D. Pulse intensity
&&
349
349. What is the type of modulation in which the modulating signal varies
the duration of the transmitted pulse?
   A. Amplitude modulation
   B. Frequency modulation
   C. Pulse-width modulation
   D. Pulse-height modulation
&&
350
350. In a pulse-position modulation system, what parameter does the
modulating signal vary?
   A. The number of pulses per second
   B. Both the frequency and amplitude of the pulses
   C. The duration of the pulses
   D. The time at which each pulse occurs
&&
351
351. Why is the transmitter peak power in a pulse modulation system much
greater than its average power?
   A. The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
   B. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice-modulated
   C. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are
      generated within the modulator
   D. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also
      amplitude-modulated
&&
352
352. What is one way that voice is transmitted in a pulse-width
modulation system?
   A. A standard pulse is varied in amplitude by an amount depending
      on the voice waveform at that instant
   B. The position of a standard pulse is varied by an amount depending
      on the voice waveform at that instant
   C. A standard pulse is varied in duration by an amount depending on
      the voice waveform at that instant
   D. The number of standard pulses per second varies depending on the
      voice waveform at that instant
&&
353
353. What digital code consists of elements having unequal length?
   A. ASCII
   B. AX.25
   C. Baudot
   D. Morse code
&&
354
354. What digital communications system is well suited for meteor-scatter
communications?
   A. ACSSB
   B. AMTOR
   C. Packet radio
   D. Spread spectrum
&&
355
355. The International Organization for Standardization has developed
a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio communications structure.
What level is responsible for the actual transmission of data and handshaking
signals?
   A. The physical layer
   B. The transport layer
   C. The communications layer
   D. The synchronization layer
&&
356
356. The International Organization for Standardization has developed
a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio communications structure.
What level arranges the bits into frames and controls data flow?
   A. The transport layer
   B. The link layer
   C. The communications layer
   D. The synchronization layer
&&
357
357. What is one advantage of using the ASCII code, with its larger
character set, instead of the Baudot code?
   A. ASCII includes built-in error-correction features
   B. ASCII characters contain fewer information bits than Baudot characters
   C. It is possible to transmit upper and lower case text
   D. The larger character set allows store-and-forward control characters
      to be added to a message
&&
358
358. What type of error control system does Mode A AMTOR use?
   A. Each character is sent twice
   B. The receiving station checks the calculated frame check sequence
      (FCS) against the transmitted FCS
   C. Mode A AMTOR does not include an error control system
   D. The receiving station automatically requests repeats when needed
&&
359
359. What type of error control system does Mode B AMTOR use?
   A. Each character is sent twice
   B. The receiving station checks the calculated frame check sequence
      (FCS) against the transmitted FCS
   C. Mode B AMTOR does not include an error control system
   D. The receiving station automatically requests repeats when needed
&&
360
360. What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot RTTY data pulse?
   A. 11 milliseconds
   B. 40 milliseconds
   C. 31 milliseconds
   D. 22 milliseconds
&&
361
361. What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot RTTY start pulse?
   A. 11 milliseconds
   B. 22 milliseconds
   C. 31 milliseconds
   D. 40 milliseconds
&&
362
362. What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot RTTY stop pulse?
   A. 11 milliseconds
   B. 18 milliseconds
   C. 31 milliseconds
   D. 40 milliseconds
&&
363
363. What is the primary advantage of AMTOR over Baudot RTTY?
   A. AMTOR characters contain fewer information bits than Baudot
      characters
   B. AMTOR includes an error detection system
   C. Surplus radioteletype machines that use the AMTOR code are
      readily available
   D. Photographs can be transmitted using AMTOR
&&
364
364. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 45-baud Baudot
emission F1B transmission?
   A. 45 Hz
   B. 250 Hz
   C. 442 Hz
   D. 600 Hz
&&
365
365. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 45-baud Baudot
emission J2B transmission?
   A. 45 Hz
   B. 249 Hz
   C. 442 Hz
   D. 600 Hz
&&
366
366. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 74-baud Baudot
emission F1B transmission?
   A. 250 Hz
   B. 278 Hz
   C. 442 Hz
   D. 600 Hz
&&
367
367. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 74-baud Baudot
emission J2B transmission?
   A. 250 Hz
   B. 278 Hz
   C. 442 Hz
   D. 600 Hz
&&
368
368. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code
emission A1A transmission?
   A. Approximately 13 Hz
   B. Approximately 26 Hz
   C. Approximately 52 Hz
   D. Approximately 104 Hz
&&
369
369. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code
emission J2A transmission?
   A. Approximately 13 Hz
   B. Approximately 26 Hz
   C. Approximately 52 Hz
   D. Approximately 104 Hz
&&
370
370. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 1000-Hertz shift, 1200-baud
ASCII emission F1D transmission?
   A. 1000 Hz
   B. 1200 Hz
   C. 440 Hz
   D. 2400 Hz
&&
371
371. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hertz frequency shift,
9600-baud ASCII emission F1D transmission?
   A. 15.36 kHz
   B. 9.6 kHz
   C. 4.8 kHz
   D. 5.76 kHz
&&
372
372. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hertz frequency shift,
9600-baud ASCII emission J2D transmission?
   A. 15.36 kHz
   B. 9.6 kHz
   C. 4.8 kHz
   D. 5.76 kHz
&&
373
373. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 5-WPM international Morse code
emission A1A transmission?
   A. Approximately 5 Hz
   B. Approximately 10 Hz
   C. Approximately 20 Hz
   D. Approximately 40 Hz
&&
374
374. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 5-WPM international Morse code
emission J2A transmission?
   A. Approximately 5 Hz
   B. Approximately 10 Hz
   C. Approximately 20 Hz
   D. Approximately 40 Hz
&&
375
375. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 110-baud
ASCII emission F1B transmission?
   A. 304 Hz
   B. 314 Hz
   C. 608 Hz
   D. 628 Hz
&&
376
376. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 110-baud
ASCII emission J2B transmission?
   A. 304 Hz
   B. 314 Hz
   C. 608 Hz
   D. 628 Hz
&&
377
377. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 300-baud
ASCII emission F1D transmission?
   A. 0 Hz
   B. 0.3 kHz
   C. 0.5 kHz
   D. 1.0 kHz
&&
R378
378. What is the necessary bandwidth for a 170-Hertz shift, 300-baud
ASCII emission J2D transmission?
   A. 0 Hz
   B. 0.3 kHz
   C. 0.5 kHz
   D. 1.0 kHz
&&
379
379. What is amplitude compandored single sideband?
   A. Reception of single sideband with a conventional CW receiver
   B. Reception of single sideband with a conventional FM receiver
   C. Single sideband incorporating speech compression at the transmitter
      and speech expansion at the receiver
   D. Single sideband incorporating speech expansion at the transmitter
      and speech compression at the receiver
&&
380
380. What is meant by compandoring?
   A. Compressing speech at the transmitter and expanding it at the
      receiver
   B. Using an audio-frequency signal to produce pulse-length modulation
   C. Combining amplitude and frequency modulation to produce a
      single-sideband signal
   D. Detecting and demodulating a single-sideband signal by converting
      it to a pulse-modulated signal
&&
381
381. What is the purpose of a pilot tone in an amplitude compandored
single sideband system?
   A. It permits rapid tuning of a mobile receiver
   B. It replaces the suppressed carrier at the receiver
   C. It permits rapid change of frequency to escape high-powered
      interference
   D. It acts as a beacon to indicate the present propagation
      characteristic of the band
&&
382
382. What is the approximate frequency of the pilot tone in an amplitude
compandored single sideband system?
   A. 1 kHz
   B. 5 MHz
   C. 455 kHz
   D. 3 kHz
&&
383
383. How many more voice transmissions can be packed into a given
frequency band for amplitude compandored single sideband systems
over conventional emission F3E systems?
   A. 2
   B. 4
   C. 8
   D. 16
&&
384
384. What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which
the RF carrier varies according to some predetermined sequence?
   A. Amplitude compandored single sideband
   B. AMTOR
   C. Time-domain frequency modulation
   D. Spread spectrum communication
&&
385
385. What is the term used to describe a spread spectrum communications
system where the center frequency of a conventional carrier is altered
many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?
   A. Frequency hopping
   B. Direct sequence
   C. Time-domain frequency modulation
   D. Frequency compandored spread spectrum
&&
386
386. What term is used to describe a spread spectrum communications system
in which a very fast binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an
RF carrier?
   A. Frequency hopping
   B. Direct sequence
   C. Binary phase-shift keying
   D. Phase compandored spread spectrum
&&
387
387. What is the term for the amplitude of the maximum positive excursion
of a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope?
   A. Peak-to-peak voltage
   B. Inverse peak negative voltage
   C. RMS voltage
   D. Peak positive voltage
&&
388
388. What is the term for the amplitude of the maximum negative excursion
of a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope?
   A. Peak-to-peak voltage
   B. Inverse peak positive voltage
   C. RMS voltage
   D. Peak negative voltage
&&
389
389. What is the easiest voltage amplitude dimension to measure by viewing
a pure sine wave signal on an oscilloscope?
   A. Peak-to-peak voltage
   B. RMS voltage
   C. Average voltage
   D. DC voltage
&&
390
390. What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the
peak voltage amplitude in a symmetrical wave form?
   A. 1:1
   B. 2:1
   C. 3:1
   D. 4:1
&&
391
391. What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the
signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?
   A. Peak voltage
   B. Average voltage
   C. RMS voltage
   D. Resting voltage
&&
392
392. What is an isotropic radiator?
   A. A hypothetical, omnidirectional antenna
   B. In the northern hemisphere, an antenna whose directive pattern
      is constant in southern directions
   C. An antenna high enough in the air that its directive pattern
      is substantially unaffected by the ground beneath it
   D. An antenna whose directive pattern is substantially unaffected
      by the spacing of the elements
&&
393
393. When is it useful to refer to an isotropic radiator?
   A. When comparing the gains of directional antennas
   B. When testing a transmission line for standing wave ratio
   C. When (in the northern hemisphere) directing the transmission
      in a southerly direction
   D. When using a dummy load to tune a transmitter
&&
394
394. What theoretical reference antenna provides a comparison for
antenna measurements?
   A. Quarter-wave vertical
   B. Yagi
   C. Bobtail curtain
   D. Isotropic radiator
&&
395
395. What purpose does an isotropic radiator serve?
   A. It is used to compare signal strengths (at a distant point) of
      different transmitters
   B. It is used as a reference for antenna gain measurements
   C. It is used as a dummy load for tuning transmitters
   D. It is used to measure the standing-wave-ratio on a transmission
      line
&&
396
396. How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole have over an isotropic
radiator?
   A. About 1.5 dB
   B. About 2.1 dB
   C. About 3.0 dB
   D. About 6.0 dB
&&
397
397. How much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength dipole when
it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator?
   A. About 3.9 dB
   B. About 6.0 dB
   C. About 8.1 dB
   D. About 10.0 dB
&&
398
398. How much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength dipole when
it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic radiator?
   A. About 6.1 dB
   B. About 9.9 dB
   C. About 12.0 dB
   D. About 14.1 dB
&&
399
399. What is the antenna pattern for an isotropic radiator?
   A. A figure-8
   B. A unidirectional cardioid
   C. A parabola
   D. A sphere
&&
400
400. What type of directivity pattern does an isotropic radiator have?
   A. A figure-8
   B. A unidirectional cardioid
   C. A parabola
   D. A sphere
&&
401
401. What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical
antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
   A. Unidirectional cardioid
   B. Omnidirectional
   C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
   D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
&&
402
402. What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical
antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?
   A. Unidirectional cardioid
   B. Figure-8 end-fire
   C. Figure-8 broadside
   D. Omnidirectional
&&
403
403. What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical
antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed in phase?
   A. Omnidirectional
   B. Cardioid unidirectional
   C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
   D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
&&
404
404. How far apart should two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas be spaced
in order to produce a figure-8 pattern that is broadside to the plane
of the verticals when fed in phase?
   A. 1/8 wavelength
   B. 1/4 wavelength
   C. 1/2 wavelength
   D. 1 wavelength
&&
405
405. How many 1/2 wavelengths apart should two 1/4-wavelength vertical
antennas be spaced to produce a figure-8 pattern that is in line with
the vertical antennas when they are fed 180 degrees out of phase?
   A. One half wavelength apart
   B. Two half wavelengths apart
   C. Three half wavelengths apart
   D. Four half wavelengths apart
&&
406
406. What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical
antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
   A. Omnidirectional
   B. Cardioid unidirectional
   C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
   D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
&&
407
407. What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical
antennas spaced 1/8 wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
   A. Omnidirectional
   B. Cardioid unidirectional
   C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
   D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
&&
408
408. What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical
antennas spaced 1/8 wavelength apart and fed in phase?
   A. Omnidirectional
   B. Cardioid unidirectional
   C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
   D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
&&
409
409. What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical
antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed in phase?
   A. Substantially unidirectional
   B. Elliptical
   C. Cardioid unidirectional
   D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
&&
410
410. What is a resonant rhombic antenna?
   A. A unidirectional antenna, each of whose sides is equal to half
      a wavelength and which is terminated in a resistance equal to
      its characteristic impedance
   B. A bidirectional antenna open at the end opposite that to which
      the transmission line is connected and with each side approximately
      equal to one wavelength
   C. An antenna with an LC network at each vertex (other than that to
      which the transmission line is connected) tuned to resonate at
      the operating frequency
   D. A high-frequency antenna, each of whose sides contains traps for
      changing the resonance to match the band in use
&&
411
411. What is a nonresonant rhombic antenna?
   A. A unidirectional antenna terminated in a resistance equal to its
      characteristic impedance
   B. An open-ended bidirectional antenna
   C. An antenna resonant at approximately double the frequency of the
      intended band of operation
   D. A horizontal triangular antenna consisting of two adjacent sides
      and the long diagonal of a resonant rhombic antenna
&&
412
412. What are the advantages of a nonresonant rhombic antenna?
   A. Wide frequency range, high gain and high front-to-back ratio
   B. High front-to-back ratio, compact size and high gain
   C. Unidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and compact size
   D. Bidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and wide frequency
      range
&&
413
413. What are the disadvantages of a nonresonant rhombic antenna?
   A. It requires a large area for proper installation and has a
      narrow bandwidth
   B. It requires a large area for proper installation and has a
      low front-to-back ratio
   C. It requires a large amount of aluminum tubing and has a low
      front-to-back ratio
   D. It requires a large area and four sturdy supports for proper
      installation
&&
414
414. What is the characteristic impedance at the input of a nonresonant
rhombic antenna?
   A. 50 to 55 ohms
   B. 70 to 75 ohms
   C. 300 to 350 ohms
   D. 700 to 800 ohms
&&
415
415. What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?
   A. It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the
      transmitter
   B. It changes the radiation pattern from essentially bidirectional to
      essentially unidirectional
   C. It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical
      polarization
   D. It decreases the ground loss
&&
416
416. What should be the value of the terminating resistor on a rhombic
antenna?
   A. About 50 ohms
   B. About 75 ohms
   C. About 800 ohms
   D. About 1800 ohms
&&
417
417. What factors determine the receiving antenna gain required at an
amateur station in earth operation?
   A. Height, transmitter power and antennas of satellite
   B. Length of transmission line and impedance match between receiver
      and transmission line
   C. Preamplifier location on transmission line and presence or absence
      of RF amplifier stages
   D. Height of earth antenna and satellite orbit
&&
418
418. What factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur station in
earth operation?
   A. Satellite antennas and height, satellite receiver sensitivity
   B. Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio
   C. Satellite transmitter power and orientation of ground receiving
      antenna
   D. Elevation of satellite above horizon, signal-to-noise ratio,
      satellite transmitter power
&&
419
419. What factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur station in
telecommand operation?
   A. Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio
   B. Satellite antennas and height, satellite receiver sensitivity
   C. Satellite transmitter power and orientation of ground receiving
      antenna
   D. Elevation of satellite above horizon, signal-to-noise ratio,
      satellite transmitter power
&&
420
420. How does the gain of a parabolic dish type antenna change when the
operating frequency is doubled?
   A. Gain does not change
   B. Gain is multiplied by 0.707
   C. Gain increases 6 dB
   D. Gain increases 3 dB
&&
421
421. What happens to the beamwidth of an antenna as the gain is increased?
   A. The beamwidth increases geometrically as the gain is increased
   B. The beamwidth increases arithmetically as the gain is increased
   C. The beamwidth is essentially unaffected by the gain of the antenna
   D. The beamwidth decreases as the gain is increased
&&
422
422. What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of
20 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
   A. 10.1 degrees
   B. 20.3 degrees
   C. 45.0 degrees
   D. 60.9 degrees
&&
423
423. What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of
30 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
   A. 3.2 degrees
   B. 6.4 degrees
   C. 37 degrees
   D. 60.4 degrees
&&
424
424. What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of
15 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
   A. 72 degrees
   B. 52 degrees
   C. 36.1 degrees
   D. 3.61 degrees
&&
425
425. What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of
12 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
   A. 34.8 degrees
   B. 45.0 degrees
   C. 58.0 degrees
   D. 51.0 degrees
&&
426
426. How is circular polarization produced using linearly-polarized antennas?
   A. Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with
      the respective elements in parallel planes
   B. Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective
      elements in parallel planes
   C. Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with the driven elements
      in the same plane, and fed 90 degrees out of phase
   D. Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with the driven elements
      in the same plane, and fed in phase
&&
427
427. Why does an antenna system for earth operation (for communications
through a satellite) need to have rotators for both azimuth and elevation
control?
   A. In order to point the antenna above the horizon to avoid terrestrial
      interference
   B. Satellite antennas require two rotators because they are so large
      and heavy
   C. In order to track the satellite as it orbits the earth
   D. The elevation rotator points the antenna at the satellite and the
      azimuth rotator changes the antenna polarization
&&
428
428. What term describes a method used to match a high-impedance
transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line
to the driven element in two places, spaced a fraction of a wavelength
on each side of the driven element center?
   A. The gamma matching system
   B. The delta matching system
   C. The omega matching system
   D. The stub matching system
&&
429
429. What term describes an unbalanced feed system in which the driven
element is fed both at the center of that element and a fraction of a
wavelength to one side of center?
   A. The gamma matching system
   B. The delta matching system
   C. The omega matching system
   D. The stub matching system
&&
430
430. What term describes a method of antenna impedance matching that
uses a short section of transmission line connected to the antenna feed
line near the antenna and perpendicular to the feed line?
   A. The gamma matching system
   B. The delta matching system
   C. The omega matching system
   D. The stub matching system
&&
431
431. What should be the approximate capacitance of the resonating
capacitor in a gamma matching circuit on a 1/2-wavelength dipole antenna
for the 20-meter band?
   A. 70 pF
   B. 140 pF
   C. 200 pF
   D. 0.2 pF
&&
432
432. What should be the approximate capacitance of the resonating
capacitor in a gamma matching circuit on a 1/2-wavelength dipole antenna
for the 10-meter band?
   A. 70 pF
   B. 140 pF
   C. 200 pF
   D. 0.2 pF
&&
433
433. What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line
present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
   A. A capacitive reactance
   B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
   C. An inductive reactance
   D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage
&&
434
434. What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line
present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
   A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
   B. An inductive reactance
   C. A capacitive reactance
   D. The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage
&&
435
435. What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line
present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
   A. A very high impedance
   B. A very low impedance
   C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
   D. The same as the generator output impedance
&&
436
436. What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line
present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
   A. A very high impedance
   B. A very low impedance
   C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
   D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage
&&
437
437. What kind of impedance does a 3/8-wavelength transmission line
present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
   A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
   B. An inductive reactance
   C. A capacitive reactance
   D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage
&&
438
438. What kind of impedance does a 3/8-wavelength transmission line
present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
   A. A capacitive reactance
   B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
   C. An inductive reactance
   D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage
&&
439
439. What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line
present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
   A. A very high impedance
   B. A very low impedance
   C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
   D. The same as the output impedance of the generator
&&
440
440. What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line
present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
   A. A very high impedance
   B. A very low impedance
   C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
   D. The same as the output impedance of the generator
&&
1A
If you answered to Question 1:  B   (4BA-1A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
2A
If you answered to Question 2:  A   (4BA-1A.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
3A
If you answered to Question 3:  A   (4BA-1A.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
4A
If you answered to Question 4:  D   (4BA-1A.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
5A
If you answered to Question 5:  C   (4BA-1A.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
6A
If you answered to Question 6:  A   (4BA-1B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
7A
If you answered to Question 7:  B   (4BA-1B.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
8A
If you answered to Question 8:  D   (4BA-1B.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
9A
If you answered to Question 9:  D   (4BA-1B.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
10A
If you answered to Question 10:  B   (4BA-1C.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
11A
If you answered to Question 11:  B   (4BA-1C.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
12A
If you answered to Question 12:  A   (4BA-1C.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
13A
If you answered to Question 13:  B   (4BA-1D.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
14A
If you answered to Question 14:  A   (4BA-1E.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
15A
If you answered to Question 15:  B   (4BA-1E.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
16A
If you answered to Question 16:  A   (4BA-2A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
17A
If you answered to Question 17:  B   (4BA-2B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
18A
If you answered to Question 18:  A   (4BA-2B.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
19A
If you answered to Question 19:  C   (4BA-2C.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
20A
If you answered to Question 20:  C   (4BA-2D.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
21A
If you answered to Question 21:  B   (4BA-3A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
22A
If you answered to Question 22:  A   (4BA-3B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
23A
If you answered to Question 23:  C   (4BA-3C.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
24A
If you answered to Question 24:  D   (4BA-3D.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
25A
If you answered to Question 25:  A   (4BA-3E.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
26A
If you answered to Question 26:  D   (4BA-3F.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
27A
If you answered to Question 27:  A   (4BA-3G.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
28A
If you answered to Question 28:  C   (4BA-3H.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
29A
If you answered to Question 29:  A   (4BA-3H.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
30A
If you answered to Question 30:  C   (4BA-3I.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
31A
If you answered to Question 31:  C   (4BA-4A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
32A
If you answered to Question 32:  A   (4BA-4B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
33A
If you answered to Question 33:  B   (4BA-4C-1.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
34A
If you answered to Question 34:  D   (4BA-4C-2.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
35A
If you answered to Question 35:  C   (4BA-4D-1.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
36A
If you answered to Question 36:  D   (4BA-4E-1.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
37A
If you answered to Question 37:  D   (4BA-4E-2.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
38A
If you answered to Question 38:  D   (4BA-4E-4.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
39A
If you answered to Question 39:  C   (4BA-4E-4.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
40A
If you answered to Question 40:  D   (4BA-4E-4.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
41A
If you answered to Question 41:  A   (4BA-4F-1.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
42A
If you answered to Question 42:  A   (4BA-4F-2.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
43A
If you answered to Question 43:  C   (4BA-5A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
44A
If you answered to Question 44:  B   (4BA-5B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
45A
If you answered to Question 45:  A   (4BA-5C.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
46A
If you answered to Question 46:  A   (4BA-5C.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
47A
If you answered to Question 47:  A   (4BA-5C.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
48A
If you answered to Question 48:  A   (4BA-5C.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
49A
If you answered to Question 49:  A   (4BA-5C.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
50A
If you answered to Question 50:  A   (4BA-5C.6) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
51A
If you answered to Question 51:  B   (4BA-5E.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
52A
If you answered to Question 52:  A   (4BA-5D.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
53A
If you answered to Question 53:  A   (4BA-5E.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
54A
If you answered to Question 54:  D   (4BA-5F.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
55A
If you answered to Question 55:  B   (4BA-5F.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
56A
If you answered to Question 56:  A   (4BA-5F.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
57A
If you answered to Question 57:  D   (4BA-5F.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
58A
If you answered to Question 58:  A   (4BA-5G.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
59A
If you answered to Question 59:  B   (4BA-5G.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
60A
If you answered to Question 60:  A   (4BA-5G.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
61A
If you answered to Question 61:  C   (4BA-5G.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
62A
If you answered to Question 62:  B   (4BA-5G.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
63A
If you answered to Question 63:  A   (4BA-5G.6) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
64A
If you answered to Question 64:  B   (4BA-6A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
65A
If you answered to Question 65:  B   (4BA-6A.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
66A
If you answered to Question 66:  B   (4BA-6B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
67A
If you answered to Question 67:  B   (4BA-6B.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
68A
If you answered to Question 68:  B   (4BA-6B.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
69A
If you answered to Question 69:  B   (4BA-6B.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
70A
If you answered to Question 70:  A   (4BA-6B.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
71A
If you answered to Question 71:  D   (4BA-6C.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
72A
If you answered to Question 72:  A   (4BA-6C.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
73A
If you answered to Question 73:  C   (4BA-6C.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
74A
If you answered to Question 74:  D   (4BA-6D.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
75A
If you answered to Question 75:  A   (4BA-6D.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
76A
If you answered to Question 76:  A   (4BA-7A-1.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
77A
If you answered to Question 77:  D   (4BA-7A-1.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
78A
If you answered to Question 78:  A   (4BA-7A-1.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
79A
If you answered to Question 79:  C   (4BA-7A-1.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
80A
If you answered to Question 80:  C   (4BA-7A-1.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
81A
If you answered to Question 81:  D   (4BA-7A-1.6) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
82A
If you answered to Question 82:  C   (4BA-7A-1.7) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
83A
If you answered to Question 83:  D   (4BA-7A-1.8) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
84A
If you answered to Question 84:  A   (4BA-7A-2.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
85A
If you answered to Question 85:  D   (4BA-7A-2.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
86A
If you answered to Question 86:  A   (4BA-7A-2.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
87A
If you answered to Question 87:  A   (4BA-7A-2.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
88A
If you answered to Question 88:  D   (4BA-7A-2.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
89A
If you answered to Question 89:  D   (4BA-7A-2.6) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
90A
If you answered to Question 90:  D   (4BA-7B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
91A
If you answered to Question 91:  D   (4BA-7B.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
92A
If you answered to Question 92:  A   (4BA-7B.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
93A
If you answered to Question 93:  C   (4BA-7B.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
94A
If you answered to Question 94:  A   (4BA-7C.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
95A
If you answered to Question 95:  B   (4BA-7C.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
96A
If you answered to Question 96:  B   (4BA-7C.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
97A
If you answered to Question 97:  D   (4BA-7C.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
98A
If you answered to Question 98:  C   (4BA-7C.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
99A
If you answered to Question 99:  B   (4BA-7C.6) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
100A
If you answered to Question 100:  A   (4BA-7C.7) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
101A
If you answered to Question 101:  C   (4BA-7C.8) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
102A
If you answered to Question 102:  C   (4BA-7C.9) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
103A
If you answered to Question 103:  D   (4BA-7D.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
104A
If you answered to Question 104:  A   (4BA-7D.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
105A
If you answered to Question 105:  C   (4BA-7D.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
106A
If you answered to Question 106:  B   (4BA-7D.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
107A
If you answered to Question 107:  B   (4BA-7D.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
108A
If you answered to Question 108:  C   (4BA-7E.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
109A
If you answered to Question 109:  B   (4BA-7E.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
110A
If you answered to Question 110:  A   (4BA-7E.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
111A
If you answered to Question 111:  D   (4BA-7E.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
112A
If you answered to Question 112:  A   (4BA-7E.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
113A
If you answered to Question 113:  B   (4BA-7E.6) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
114A
If you answered to Question 114:  A   (4BA-7F.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
115A
If you answered to Question 115:  B   (4BA-7F.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
116A
If you answered to Question 116:  D   (4BA-7F.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
117A
If you answered to Question 117:  B   (4BA-7F.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
118A
If you answered to Question 118:  C   (4BB-1A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
119A
If you answered to Question 119:  A   (4BB-1A.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
120A
If you answered to Question 120:  C   (4BB-1A.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
121A
If you answered to Question 121:  D   (4BB-1B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
122A
If you answered to Question 122:  B   (4BB-1B.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
123A
If you answered to Question 123:  B   (4BB-1B.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
124A
If you answered to Question 124:  B   (4BB-1B.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
125A
If you answered to Question 125:  B   (4BB-1C.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
126A
If you answered to Question 126:  A   (4BB-1C.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
127A
If you answered to Question 127:  D   (4BB-1D.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
128A
If you answered to Question 128:  A   (4BB-1D.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
129A
If you answered to Question 129:  B   (4BB-1D.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
130A
If you answered to Question 130:  A   (4BB-2A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
131A
If you answered to Question 131:  C   (4BB-2A.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
132A
If you answered to Question 132:  C   (4BB-2A.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
133A
If you answered to Question 133:  B   (4BB-2A.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
134A
If you answered to Question 134:  A   (4BB-2A.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
135A
If you answered to Question 135:  D   (4BB-2A.6) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
136A
If you answered to Question 136:  C   (4BB-2A.7) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
137A
If you answered to Question 137:  B   (4BB-2A.8) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
138A
If you answered to Question 138:  C   (4BB-2A.9) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
139A
If you answered to Question 139:  D   (4BC-1.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
140A
If you answered to Question 140:  B   (4BC-1.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
141A
If you answered to Question 141:  A   (4BC-1.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
142A
If you answered to Question 142:  D   (4BC-1.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
143A
If you answered to Question 143:  B   (4BC-1.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
144A
If you answered to Question 144:  B   (4BC-2.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
145A
If you answered to Question 145:  C   (4BC-2.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
146A
If you answered to Question 146:  A   (4BC-3.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
147A
If you answered to Question 147:  C   (4BC-3.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
148A
If you answered to Question 148:  C   (4BC-3.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
149A
If you answered to Question 149:  C   (4BC-4.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
150A
If you answered to Question 150:  D   (4BC-5.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
151A
If you answered to Question 151:  C   (4BD-1A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
152A
If you answered to Question 152:  D   (4BD-1A.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
153A
If you answered to Question 153:  A   (4BD-1A.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
154A
If you answered to Question 154:  A   (4BD-1B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
155A
If you answered to Question 155:  B   (4BD-1B.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
156A
If you answered to Question 156:  D   (4BD-2A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
157A
If you answered to Question 157:  C   (4BD-2A.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
158A
If you answered to Question 158:  D   (4BD-2A.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
159A
If you answered to Question 159:  A   (4BD-2B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
160A
If you answered to Question 160:  A   (4BD-3A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
161A
If you answered to Question 161:  A   (4BD-3A.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
162A
If you answered to Question 162:  C   (4BD-3A.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
163A
If you answered to Question 163:  D   (4BD-3A.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
164A
If you answered to Question 164:  B   (4BD-3B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
165A
If you answered to Question 165:  D   (4BD-3B.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
166A
If you answered to Question 166:  B   (4BD-3C.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
167A
If you answered to Question 167:  C   (4BD-3D.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
168A
If you answered to Question 168:  A   (4BD-4.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
169A
If you answered to Question 169:  B   (4BD-4.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
170A
If you answered to Question 170:  C   (4BD-4.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
171A
If you answered to Question 171:  D   (4BD-4.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
172A
If you answered to Question 172:  A   (4BD-4.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
173A
If you answered to Question 173:  D   (4BD-4.6) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
174A
If you answered to Question 174:  C   (4BD-4.7) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
175A
If you answered to Question 175:  D   (4BD-4.8) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
176A
If you answered to Question 176:  B   (4BD-4.9) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
177A
If you answered to Question 177:  C   (4BD-4.10) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
178A
If you answered to Question 178:  B   (4BE-1.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
179A
If you answered to Question 179:  A   (4BE-1.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
180A
If you answered to Question 180:  D   (4BE-1.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
181A
If you answered to Question 181:  C   (4BE-1.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
182A
If you answered to Question 182:  D   (4BE-1.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
183A
If you answered to Question 183:  A   (4BE-1.6) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
184A
If you answered to Question 184:  B   (4BE-1.7) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
185A
If you answered to Question 185:  D   (4BE-1.8) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
186A
If you answered to Question 186:  D   (4BE-2A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
187A
If you answered to Question 187:  C   (4BE-2A.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
188A
If you answered to Question 188:  B   (4BE-2A.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
189A
If you answered to Question 189:  A   (4BE-2A.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
190A
If you answered to Question 190:  D   (4BE-2A.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
191A
If you answered to Question 191:  D   (4BE-2A.6) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
192A
If you answered to Question 192:  C   (4BE-2B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
193A
If you answered to Question 193:  D   (4BE-2B.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
194A
If you answered to Question 194:  C   (4BE-2B.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
195A
If you answered to Question 195:  A   (4BE-2B.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
196A
If you answered to Question 196:  B   (4BE-2B.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
197A
If you answered to Question 197:  B   (4BE-2B.6) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
198A
If you answered to Question 198:  C   (4BE-2B.7) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
199A
If you answered to Question 199:  C   (4BE-2B.8) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
200A
If you answered to Question 200:  B   (4BE-2B.9) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
201A
If you answered to Question 201:  D   (4BE-2B.10) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
202A
If you answered to Question 202:  A   (4BE-2B.11) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
203A
If you answered to Question 203:  A   (4BE-2B.12) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
204A
If you answered to Question 204:  B   (4BE-2B.13) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
205A
If you answered to Question 205:  A   (4BE-2B.14) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
206A
If you answered to Question 206:  D   (4BE-2B.15) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
207A
If you answered to Question 207:  A   (4BE-2B.16) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
208A
If you answered to Question 208:  C   (4BE-2B.17) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
209A
If you answered to Question 209:  D   (4BE-2B.18) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
210A
If you answered to Question 210:  D   (4BE-2B.19) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
211A
If you answered to Question 211:  A   (4BE-2B.20) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
212A
If you answered to Question 212:  D   (4BE-2B.21) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
213A
If you answered to Question 213:  C   (4BE-2B.22) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
214A
If you answered to Question 214:  A   (4BE-3.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
215A
If you answered to Question 215:  B   (4BE-3.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
216A
If you answered to Question 216:  C   (4BE-3.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
217A
If you answered to Question 217:  C   (4BE-3.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
218A
If you answered to Question 218:  B   (4BE-3.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
219A
If you answered to Question 219:  C   (4BE-3.6) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
220A
If you answered to Question 220:  D   (4BE-3.7) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
221A
If you answered to Question 221:  C   (4BE-3.8) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
222A
If you answered to Question 222:  B   (4BE-3.9) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
223A
If you answered to Question 223:  A   (4BE-4.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
224A
If you answered to Question 224:  B   (4BE-4.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
225A
If you answered to Question 225:  A   (4BE-4.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
226A
If you answered to Question 226:  D   (4BE-4.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
227A
If you answered to Question 227:  A   (4BE-4.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
228A
If you answered to Question 228:  B   (4BE-5.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
229A
If you answered to Question 229:  C   (4BE-5.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
230A
If you answered to Question 230:  D   (4BE-5.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
231A
If you answered to Question 231:  A   (4BE-5.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
232A
If you answered to Question 232:  A   (4BE-5.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
233A
If you answered to Question 233:  B   (4BE-6A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
234A
If you answered to Question 234:  C   (4BE-6A.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
235A
If you answered to Question 235:  D   (4BE-6A.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
236A
If you answered to Question 236:  B   (4BE-6A.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
237A
If you answered to Question 237:  C   (4BE-6A.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
238A
If you answered to Question 238:  B   (4BE-6B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
239A
If you answered to Question 239:  C   (4BE-6B.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
240A
If you answered to Question 240:  B   (4BE-6B.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
241A
If you answered to Question 241:  A   (4BE-6B.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
242A
If you answered to Question 242:  D   (4BE-6B.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
243A
If you answered to Question 243:  D   (4BF-1A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
244A
If you answered to Question 244:  A   (4BF-1B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
245A
If you answered to Question 245:  A   (4BF-1C.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
246A
If you answered to Question 246:  B   (4BF-1C.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
247A
If you answered to Question 247:  C   (4BF-1C.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
248A
If you answered to Question 248:  D   (4BF-1C.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
249A
If you answered to Question 249:  D   (4BF-1C.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
250A
If you answered to Question 250:  C   (4BF-1D.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
251A
If you answered to Question 251:  A   (4BF-1D.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
252A
If you answered to Question 252:  A   (4BF-1E.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
253A
If you answered to Question 253:  D   (4BF-1E.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
254A
If you answered to Question 254:  D   (4BF-1E.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
255A
If you answered to Question 255:  B   (4BF-1F.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
256A
If you answered to Question 256:  A   (4BF-1F.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
257A
If you answered to Question 257:  A   (4BF-2.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
258A
If you answered to Question 258:  A   (4BF-2.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
259A
If you answered to Question 259:  B   (4BF-2.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
260A
If you answered to Question 260:  A   (4BF-2.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
261A
If you answered to Question 261:  C   (4BF-2.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
262A
If you answered to Question 262:  D   (4BF-2.6) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
263A
If you answered to Question 263:  A   (4BF-2.7) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
264A
If you answered to Question 264:  D   (4BF-3.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
265A
If you answered to Question 265:  D   (4BF-3.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
266A
If you answered to Question 266:  B   (4BF-3.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
267A
If you answered to Question 267:  B   (4BF-4.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
268A
If you answered to Question 268:  C   (4BF-4.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
269A
If you answered to Question 269:  A   (4BF-4.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
270A
If you answered to Question 270:  A   (4BF-4.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
271A
If you answered to Question 271:  C   (4BF-4.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
272A
If you answered to Question 272:  D   (4BF-4.6) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
273A
If you answered to Question 273:  B   (4BF-5.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
274A
If you answered to Question 274:  B   (4BF-5.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
275A
If you answered to Question 275:  C   (4BF-5.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
276A
If you answered to Question 276:  C   (4BF-6.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
277A
If you answered to Question 277:  D   (4BF-6.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
278A
If you answered to Question 278:  D   (4BF-6.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
279A
If you answered to Question 279:  D   (4BG-1A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
280A
If you answered to Question 280:  A   (4BG-1A.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
281A
If you answered to Question 281:  C   (4BG-1A.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
282A
If you answered to Question 282:  C   (4BG-1A.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
283A
If you answered to Question 283:  C   (4BG-1A.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
284A
If you answered to Question 284:  C   (4BG-1A.6) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
285A
If you answered to Question 285:  B   (4BG-1A.7) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
286A
If you answered to Question 286:  D   (4BG-1B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
287A
If you answered to Question 287:  A   (4BG-1B.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
288A
If you answered to Question 288:  A   (4BG-1C.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
289A
If you answered to Question 289:  A   (4BG-1C.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
290A
If you answered to Question 290:  D   (4BG-1C.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
291A
If you answered to Question 291:  B   (4BG-1C.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
292A
If you answered to Question 292:  A   (4BG-1C.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
293A
If you answered to Question 293:  D   (4BG-1C.6) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
294A
If you answered to Question 294:  C   (4BG-1C.7) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
295A
If you answered to Question 295:  D   (4BG-1C.8) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
296A
If you answered to Question 296:  A   (4BG-1C.9) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
297A
If you answered to Question 297:  A   (4BG-1C.10) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
298A
If you answered to Question 298:  C   (4BG-1D.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
299A
If you answered to Question 299:  D   (4BG-1D.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
300A
If you answered to Question 300:  A   (4BG-1D.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
301A
If you answered to Question 301:  A   (4BG-1D.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
302A
If you answered to Question 302:  D   (4BG-1D.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
303A
If you answered to Question 303:  D   (4BG-2A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
304A
If you answered to Question 304:  C   (4BG-2A.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
305A
If you answered to Question 305:  D   (4BG-2B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
306A
If you answered to Question 306:  A   (4BG-2B.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
307A
If you answered to Question 307:  B   (4BG-2B.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
308A
If you answered to Question 308:  B   (4BG-2B.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
309A
If you answered to Question 309:  D   (4BG-3A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
310A
If you answered to Question 310:  B   (4BG-3A.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
311A
If you answered to Question 311:  D   (4BG-3A.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
312A
If you answered to Question 312:  C   (4BG-3B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
313A
If you answered to Question 313:  A   (4BG-3B.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
314A
If you answered to Question 314:  D   (4BG-3B.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
315A
If you answered to Question 315:  A   (4BG-3B.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
316A
If you answered to Question 316:  D   (4BG-4A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
317A
If you answered to Question 317:  A   (4BG-4A.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
318A
If you answered to Question 318:  B   (4BG-4A.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
319A
If you answered to Question 319:  B   (4BG-4B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
320A
If you answered to Question 320:  B   (4BG-4B.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
321A
If you answered to Question 321:  D   (4BG-4B.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
322A
If you answered to Question 322:  B   (4BG-4B.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
323A
If you answered to Question 323:  B   (4BG-4B.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
324A
If you answered to Question 324:  B   (4BG-4B.6) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
325A
If you answered to Question 325:  B   (4BG-4B.7) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
326A
If you answered to Question 326:  A   (4BG-4B.8) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
327A
If you answered to Question 327:  D   (4BG-4B.9) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
328A
If you answered to Question 328:  D   (4BG-4B.10) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
329A
If you answered to Question 329:  C   (4BG-4C.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
330A
If you answered to Question 330:  D   (4BG-4C.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
331A
If you answered to Question 331:  A   (4BG-4C.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
332A
If you answered to Question 332:  B   (4BG-4C.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
333A
If you answered to Question 333:  C   (4BG-4D.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
334A
If you answered to Question 334:  C   (4BG-4D.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
335A
If you answered to Question 335:  A   (4BG-5A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
336A
If you answered to Question 336:  B   (4BG-5B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
337A
If you answered to Question 337:  D   (4BG-5C.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
338A
If you answered to Question 338:  C   (4BG-5C.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
339A
If you answered to Question 339:  B   (4BG-5C.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
340A
If you answered to Question 340:  C   (4BG-5C.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
341A
If you answered to Question 341:  D   (4BG-5D.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
342A
If you answered to Question 342:  C   (4BG-6.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
343A
If you answered to Question 343:  A   (4BG-6.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
344A
If you answered to Question 344:  A   (4BG-7.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
345A
If you answered to Question 345:  A   (4BG-7.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
346A
If you answered to Question 346:  C   (4BG-8.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
347A
If you answered to Question 347:  A   (4BG-8.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
348A
If you answered to Question 348:  A   (4BH-1A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
349A
If you answered to Question 349:  C   (4BH-1A.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
350A
If you answered to Question 350:  D   (4BH-1B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
351A
If you answered to Question 351:  A   (4BH-1B.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
352A
If you answered to Question 352:  C   (4BH-1B.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
353A
If you answered to Question 353:  D   (4BH-2A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
354A
If you answered to Question 354:  C   (4BH-2B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
355A
If you answered to Question 355:  A   (4BH-2B.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
356A
If you answered to Question 356:  B   (4BH-2B.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
357A
If you answered to Question 357:  C   (4BH-2C.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
358A
If you answered to Question 358:  D   (4BH-2D.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
359A
If you answered to Question 359:  A   (4BH-2D.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
360A
If you answered to Question 360:  D   (4BH-2E.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
361A
If you answered to Question 361:  B   (4BH-2E.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
362A
If you answered to Question 362:  C   (4BH-2E.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
363A
If you answered to Question 363:  B   (4BH-2E.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
364A
If you answered to Question 364:  B   (4BH-2F.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
365A
If you answered to Question 365:  B   (4BH-2F.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
366A
If you answered to Question 366:  B   (4BH-2F.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
367A
If you answered to Question 367:  B   (4BH-2F.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
368A
If you answered to Question 368:  C   (4BH-2F.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
369A
If you answered to Question 369:  C   (4BH-2F.6) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
370A
If you answered to Question 370:  D   (4BH-2F.7) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
371A
If you answered to Question 371:  A   (4BH-2F.8) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
372A
If you answered to Question 372:  A   (4BH-2F.9) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
373A
If you answered to Question 373:  C   (4BH-2F.10) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
374A
If you answered to Question 374:  C   (4BH-2F.11) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
375A
If you answered to Question 375:  B   (4BH-2F.12) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
376A
If you answered to Question 376:  B   (4BH-2F.13) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
377A
If you answered to Question 377:  C   (4BH-2F.14) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
378A
If you answered to Question 378:  C   (4BH-2F.15) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
379A
If you answered to Question 379:  C   (4BH-3.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
380A
If you answered to Question 380:  A   (4BH-3.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
381A
If you answered to Question 381:  A   (4BH-3.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
382A
If you answered to Question 382:  D   (4BH-3.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
383A
If you answered to Question 383:  B   (4BH-3.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
384A
If you answered to Question 384:  D   (4BH-4.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
385A
If you answered to Question 385:  A   (4BH-4.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
386A
If you answered to Question 386:  B   (4BH-4.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
387A
If you answered to Question 387:  D   (4BH-5.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
388A
If you answered to Question 388:  D   (4BH-5.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
389A
If you answered to Question 389:  A   (4BH-6A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
390A
If you answered to Question 390:  B   (4BH-6A.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
391A
If you answered to Question 391:  A   (4BH-6A.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
392A
If you answered to Question 392:  A   (4BI-1A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
393A
If you answered to Question 393:  A   (4BI-1B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
394A
If you answered to Question 394:  D   (4BI-1B.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
395A
If you answered to Question 395:  B   (4BI-1B.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
396A
If you answered to Question 396:  B   (4BI-1B.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
397A
If you answered to Question 397:  A   (4BI-1B.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
398A
If you answered to Question 398:  B   (4BI-1B.6) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
399A
If you answered to Question 399:  D   (4BI-1C.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
400A
If you answered to Question 400:  D   (4BI-1C.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
401A
If you answered to Question 401:  D   (4BI-2A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
402A
If you answered to Question 402:  A   (4BI-2A.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
403A
If you answered to Question 403:  C   (4BI-2A.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
404A
If you answered to Question 404:  C   (4BI-2A.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
405A
If you answered to Question 405:  A   (4BI-2A.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
406A
If you answered to Question 406:  D   (4BI-2A.6) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
407A
If you answered to Question 407:  D   (4BI-2A.7) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
408A
If you answered to Question 408:  A   (4BI-2A.8) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
409A
If you answered to Question 409:  B   (4BI-2A.9) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
410A
If you answered to Question 410:  B   (4BI-3A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
411A
If you answered to Question 411:  A   (4BI-3B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
412A
If you answered to Question 412:  A   (4BI-3B.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
413A
If you answered to Question 413:  D   (4BI-3B.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
414A
If you answered to Question 414:  D   (4BI-3B.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
415A
If you answered to Question 415:  B   (4BI-3C.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
416A
If you answered to Question 416:  C   (4BI-3C.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
417A
If you answered to Question 417:  A   (4BI-4A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
418A
If you answered to Question 418:  A   (4BI-4A.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
419A
If you answered to Question 419:  B   (4BI-4A.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
420A
If you answered to Question 420:  C   (4BI-4A.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
421A
If you answered to Question 421:  D   (4BI-4B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
422A
If you answered to Question 422:  B   (4BI-4B.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
423A
If you answered to Question 423:  B   (4BI-4B.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
424A
If you answered to Question 424:  C   (4BI-4B.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
425A
If you answered to Question 425:  D   (4BI-4B.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
426A
If you answered to Question 426:  C   (4BI-4C.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
427A
If you answered to Question 427:  C   (4BI-4C.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
428A
If you answered to Question 428:  B   (4BI-5.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
429A
If you answered to Question 429:  A   (4BI-5.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
430A
If you answered to Question 430:  D   (4BI-5.3) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
431A
If you answered to Question 431:  B   (4BI-5.4) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
432A
If you answered to Question 432:  A   (4BI-5.5) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
433A
If you answered to Question 433:  C   (4BI-6A.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
434A
If you answered to Question 434:  C   (4BI-6A.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
435A
If you answered to Question 435:  A   (4BI-6B.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
436A
If you answered to Question 436:  B   (4BI-6B.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
437A
If you answered to Question 437:  C   (4BI-6C.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
438A
If you answered to Question 438:  C   (4BI-6C.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
439A
If you answered to Question 439:  B   (4BI-6D.1) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
440A
If you answered to Question 440:  A   (4BI-6D.2) - CONGRATULATIONS!
&&
END
DX PacketCluster Database - EXTRA, Examination Element 4B - by K6PBT
&&